flashcard limits 750.txt

  1. Max Ramp Weight
    36400 Pounds
  2. Max TO Weight
    36100 Pounds
  3. Max Lnd Weight
    31800 Pounds
  4. Max Zero Fuel Weight
    24400 Pounds
  5. Max Altitude for TO/LND
    14000 Feet
  6. Max Tailwind Component TO/LND
    10 Knots
  7. Max Crosswind Component with Manual Reversion
    10 Knots
  8. Max Crosswind Component with Slats Asymmetry
    10 Knots
  9. Minimum altitude for in-flight use of speed brakes
    500 feet
  10. Max asymmetric fuel
    400 Pounds
  11. Emergency aymmetric fuel
    800 Pounds
  12. Minimum wing fuel per tank for TO
    500 Pounds
  13. Only the Goodyear 164F03-1, -2 nose tire is approved, what is the inflated pressure, unloaded
    130+-5 PSIG
  14. Mmo above 30650 feet?
    0.92 Mach
  15. Mmo Mach trim off?
    0.82 Mach
  16. Vmo 8000 feet to 30650 feet?
    350 KIAS
  17. Vmo below 8000 feet?
    270 KIAS
  18. Max Altitude for EXT of Flaps or Gear
    18000 Feet
  19. Max Slat EXT Speed?
    250 KIAS
  20. Max Flap EXT-5 Speed?
    250 KIAS
  21. Max Flap EXT-15 Speed?
    210 KIAS
  22. Max Flap EXT-FULL Speed?
    180 KIAS
  23. Max Landing Gear Operating/Ext Speed
    210 KIAS
  24. Max turbulent Air Penetration Speed
    300 KIAS / 0.9 Mach
  25. Max Speed Brake Extension Speed
    No Limit
  26. Minimum Speed Brake Extension Speed
    Vref +15 KIAS
  27. Minimum Single Engine Enroute Climb Speed
    190 KIAS
  28. Max Tire Ground Speed
    210 Knots
  29. G force in-flight flaps/slats retracted
    -1 to 2.7 at MGW
  30. G force in-flight flaps UP/ slats EXT
    0 to 2 at MGW
  31. G force in-flight flaps 5 to FULL / slats EXT
    0 to 2 at MGW
  32. G force in-flight max duration zero to negative G
    10 seconds
  33. G force upon landing
    3.5 at MLW
  34. The acceleration limit (G force) upon landing is _________feet per minute descent.
  35. The acceleration limit (G force) during flight restrict angle of bank and severity of ____________maneuvers.
  36. Nomal Cabin Pressure Limit
    9.7 PSI max Differential
  37. Cracked windshield may be permitted for a departure to maintenance provided which ply is not damaged?
    the structural ply (inner)
  38. Describe the windshield layers.
    1/10th inch outer, 3/16ths inch structural, 1/4th inch inner structural, all separated by 15/100ths inch PVB layers totaling .825 inch
  39. The Engine Air Turbine Starter is limited to _____ consecutive normal starts followed by 25 minutes of cooling. One ______second motoring cycle is equal to one start.
    3, 30
  40. DO / DO NOT engage the Air Turbine Starter above 25% N2 RPM.
    DO NOT
  41. Engine Type is an AE-3007C1 Turbofan, It has _____ fadecs. Must all be operational for dispatch?
    4, yes
  42. For TO, all the Micro Air Data Computers must be operational, how many are there?
  43. Minimum start duct pressure (EICAS) prior to ground start
    25 PSI
  44. Time limit in the TO/MC detent?
    5 minutes
  45. ITT Temperature limit in the TO/MC detent?
    907 degress C
  46. N2 percent Turbine RPM limit in the TO/MC detent?
    56.7 to 101
  47. N1 percent FAN RPM limit in the TO/MC detent?
  48. Time limit in the CLB detent?
  49. When should the CRU detent be selected after level-off from TOC?
    10 minutes
  50. ITT limit in the CLB, CRU detents?
    857 degrees C
  51. During single-engine operation what is the ITT limit of the operating engine?
    857 degrees C
  52. ITT during start is limited to ______.
    800 degrees C
  53. DO NOT exceed ______percent N1 until engine oil PRESSURE is less than 95 PSIG (cold days).
  54. DO NOT exceed ______percent N1 until engine fuel TEMP is greater than 4 degrees C (cold days).
  55. FADEC automatic overspeed shutdowns are set for _______N1 and ________N2
    105%, and 105.6%
  56. The Minimum Fan Speed for TO is ________.
  57. FADEC wil shut the engine down if the N2 is at or below ______%.
  58. Windmilling AIR Start ITT limit is _______degrees C.
  59. Minimum Fuel temperature for Start is ________.
    -37 degrees C
  60. Max Fuel temperature for Start is ___________.
    +52 degrees C
  61. Minimum Fuel temperature at the ENGINE probe is________.
    +4 degrees C
  62. Max Fuel temperature at the ENGINE probe is ________.
    +98.9 degrees C
  63. Max pressure of the single point refueling system is ________.
    55 PSIG
  64. Max pressure of the defueling system is ________.
    -10 PSIG
  65. Unusable fuel is _________gallons in each wing/hopper, and ________gallons in the center tank.
    4.81 and 2.2
  66. Center tank to wing transfer must be initiated prior to __________pounds per side wing fuel.
  67. Simultaneous use of crossfeed and center-to-wing tank transfer is prohibited when the wing quantity is at or less than ______.
    2900 pounds
  68. During application of deicing fluid, the APU should ________.
    not be operating
  69. The APU may or may not be left operating while unattended.
    May Not
  70. Max operating Altitude for the APU
    31000 feet
  71. Max Generator Load (amps) in the voltage range of 26 to 29 volts on the ground and during flight from the APU is ____and______.
    300 and 200
  72. Max continuous EGT of the APU
    665 degrees C
  73. Max starter duty cycle for the APU is ______ successful starts at ten minute intervals. Then _____ hour(s) must pass with the APU off for additional starts.
    6, one
  74. The limit of unsuccessful start attempts using the ship's batteries is_________.
    2 cycles 30 sec each, 30 minutes off repeat, then one hour off. Check Batteries
  75. The limit of unsuccessful start attempts using the ship's generator or GPU is_________.
    2 cycles 15 sec each, 20 minutes off repeat, max of 4 cycles/hour.
  76. The APU compartment must be inspected following _____________.
    an automatic shutdown.
  77. What is the annuciator indication of an automatic APU shutdown?
    APU FAIL illumination.
  78. The ship's batteries should be removed and stored in a warm environment is the aircraft is to be cold-soaked below _______degrees C.
  79. The battery cycle limit is _______APU starts in ONE HOUR. If this is exceeded maintenance is indicated.
  80. A ground pneumatic cart must maintain a minimum air pressure of 30 PSI prior to ___________.
    initiating the start.
  81. Max Operating altitude with the baggage compartment unpressurized
    41000 feet
  82. Use of the baggage compartment is not authorized with the cabin ____________.
  83. Max weight of the baggage in the baggage compartment is
    700 pounds
  84. Max floor loading distribution is __________per square foot.
    170 pounds
  85. max weight in the ski holding compartment is
    75 pounds
  86. Operation in the HIGH mode for the cockpit and cabin PAC selector switches is not approved for __________and____________. TO/landing and
    45000 feet
  87. Ops in the HIGH mode of the cockpit and cabin PAC selector switchs is on approved during normal ops when any of the following is ON:
    engine AI, Slat AI, Stab IA
  88. During emergency ops, HIGH mode of the PAC selectors switches is approved when AI is also on, however _______________.
    performance is degraded.
  89. Ops in the HIGH mode PAC selector switches is not approved above ___________ when the isolation valve is open and engine bleed air is off.
    25000 feet
  90. Single PAC ops is not approved for altitudes above _____________.
    41000 feet.
  91. HP BLEED SELECT switch to HP is not approved for ____________ and _____________ operations.
    TO and LND
  92. HP BLEED SELECT switch to HP is prohibited when any of the _____________systems are ON.
    Pneumatic AI
  93. The PAC BLEED SELECT switch must be positioned to __________ or ___________ above 41000 feet.
    NORM or HP
  94. Crew Oxygen masks are not approved for sustained operation at CABIN altitude greater than __________.
    40000 feet
  95. Passenger Oxygen masks are not approved for sustained operation at a CABIN altitude greater than _____________.
    25000 feet.
  96. Use of engine sync is prohibited during TO and LND, SE ops, or _________________.
    FADEC ADC or N1 reversionary ops.
  97. True or False: Both upper and lower yaw damper channels must be operational for dispatch?
  98. Both Rudder limiters must be operational for flight? T/F
  99. What is the purpose of the green arc in the stabilizer trim indicator?
    To set trim for the TO range.
  100. Intentional unloading of the A and/or B Hydraulic systems is prohibited above___________MSL.
    15000 feet
  101. Thrust Reversers are restricted to ___________operations, and on ___________surfaces only.
    ground and paved
  102. Reverse thrust must be reduced to idle by _____KIAS during landing rollout.
  103. During single engine landing, thrust reverse must be reduced to idle by _______KIAS during landing rollout.
  104. During landing with INOP nosewheel steering, thrust reverse must be reduced to idle by _______KIAS during landing rollout.
  105. During landing on a slippery runway, thrust reverse must be reduced to idle by _______KIAS during landing rollout.
  106. Thrust reversers MAY/MAY NOT be used for backing the aircraft during taxi.
  107. Max temperature (SAT) allowed for use of bleed air anti-ice, except for preflight ops check, is ______degrees C.
  108. Minimum speed/configuration for sustained flight in icing is _______KIAS/ slats up except for approach and landing.
  109. Anti-ice systems MUST/MUST NOT be used to deice surfaces prior to takeoff.
  110. For dispatch, PFE information must be displayed in ___________ and ____________units.
    number ONE and number FIVE
  111. Minimum autopilot altitudes for CRUISE?
    1000 feet AGL
  112. Minimum autopilot altitude for Precision Approach (CAT 1)?
    170 feet AGL
  113. Minimum autopilot altitude for Nonprecision approach?
    400 feet AGL
  114. Autopilot coupled operation with inoperative _____ is prohibited.
  115. Autopilot coupled ILS approaches with flaps ____ is prohibited.
Card Set
flashcard limits 750.txt
Limitations section of the citation 750