NAVETRA 14295A HM Manual.txt

  1. Which of the following is key to service w/distinction?
    A) honor
    B) customer service
    C) professional ethics
    D) steller performer
    Professional ethics
  2. The importance of having medical care onboard naval vessels was reinforced on ____
    A) June 16, 1776
    B) March 2, 1799
    C)October 13, 1975
    D) November 13, 1984
    March 2, 1799
  3. The area called the sick bay today was originally referred to as what?
    A) cockpit
    B) sickcall
    C) MTF
    D) ward
  4. The first member of the hospital corps to be awarded the medal of honor was?

    HA Eugene Soucy
    HA Robert Stanley
    Loblolly boy Russ
    Pharmacist mate Carl C. Moore
    Robert Stanley
  5. The foundation for the current system of rank structure came in what year?

  6. The first Hospital Corps School for Women Accepted for Volunteer Emergency Services was commissioned where?

    Hospital Corps School, Great Lakes, IL
    U.S. Naval Hospital Pensacola, FL
    National Naval Medical Center, Bethesda, MD
    U.S. Naval Hospital, San Diego, CA
    National Medical Center, Bethesda, MD (12 January 1944)
  7. The honorable james forrestal was serving in what position when he publically thanked the hospital corps for it's service and contribution during WW II?

    Secretary of Defense
    Secretary of War
    Secretary of the Navy
    Secretary of State
    Secretary of the Navy
  8. What was the original rating insignia of the hospital corps?

    Red cross
    Gold oak leaf
    Blue cross
    Red Cross
  9. T/F Shock Trauma PlToon (STP) were first deployed during the Afghanistan phase of the war on terror?
    False (Iraq conflict)
  10. T/F Soft Power was first articulated as a possible military policy in 1911 by president Theodore Roosevelt?
  11. The dental technician rating was established _____

    12 January 1944
    02 April 1948
    07 December 1941
    12 December 1947
    12 December 1947
  12. Most of the Navy's medical enlisted training will be relocated to _______ along with the army and air force as of 2011

    Witchita Falls, TX
    San Diego, CA
    San Antonio, TX
    Ft. Bragg, NC
    San Antonio, TX
  13. What percentage of all departmemt of the Navy Medal Of Honor has been earned by Hospital Corpsman?

  14. the following should be reported to the OOD for inclusion in to the duty log

    Bacteria in the potable water
    functioning equipment
    service member with a broken leg
    Hygiene class for food service
    Answer 1 and 3
    Answer 1 & 3
  15. SAMS is an admistrative management tool that tracks:

    Sick call log
    Pottable water testing results
    Medical training
    All of the above
    answer 1 and 2
    All of the above
  16. what specific 3-M system regulates scheduled equipment maintenance?

    planned maintenance schedule
    preventive maintenance system
    Navy maintenance and material management system planned maintenance system
    preventive maintenance system
  17. which type of directive regulates policy?

  18. Change transmittals should be filed with _____ on top?

    Change 3
    Most current change
    Original instruction
    Change 1
    most current change
  19. T/F The department of the navy information security program gives direction on how to prepare naval correspondence
    False (SECNAVINST 5216.5 series, Departmentof the Navy Correspondence Manual)
  20. the 5000 series of correspondence relates to _____

    Military Personnel
    General Administration and Management
    General Material
    Financial Material
    General Admin and management
  21. what is the process callef that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?

  22. T/F HM's should use their best judgement to dispose of questionable directives?
  23. Medical and dental personnel must be aware of planned operations so they can ______

    Plan for supplies
    Plan for possible injuries
    Plan for extended work hours
    All of the above
    All of the above
  24. which elements of medical readiness is used to correct individual medical readiness deficiencies?

    Dental Readiness
    Deployment Limiting Conditions
    Periodic Health Assessment
    Periodic Health Assessment
  25. Personnel in these dental classifications go to the head of the line for treatment prior to deployment?

    Class 1 & 2
    Class 1 & 4
    Class 3 & 4
    Class 2 & 3
    Class 3 & 4
  26. A patient in Class 2 dental status means?

    Return for evaluation in one year
    Service member is deployable
    Oral conditions are unknown
    Conditions exist requiring immediate treatment
    Service member is deployable
  27. The primary mission of the MTF medical battalion is to provide:

    Specialized surgery
    Long term hospitalization
    Preventive medicine
    Specialized surgery

    • Casualty collection
    • Emergency treatmen
    • Temporary hospitalization
    • Specialized surgery
    • Evacuation
  28. FMF dental units maintain dental readiness during all of the following EXCEPT:

    Emergency Environments
    Combat Operations
    Emergency Environments
  29. T/F Fleet hospitals are used in operations that are less than 60 days in duration.
    False ( Fleet hospitals are designed to beused in operations greater than 60 days)
  30. Fleet Hospital mission and personnel requirements are set by _____

    Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
    Combatant Commander (COCOM)
    Type Commander (TYCOM)
    Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)
    Combatant Commander (COCOM)
  31. Who directs the actions of the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion when responding to a natural disaster, i.e.Hurricane Katrina?

    1. Cognizant Authority
    2. Senior Naval Officer on scene
    3. Commanding Officer
    4. FEMA Coordinator on site
    Cognizant Authority
  32. A warfare qualification signifies_______.

    1. The HM is competent
    2. The command has confidence inthe individual wearing it
    3. The HM is an integral part of theunit
    4. The HM understands the unit’sspecific mission
    The HM is competent
  33. List the 6 parts of an IMR
    • Individual Medical Equipment
    • Immunizations
    • Readiness Laboratory Studies
    • Deployment Limiting Conditions
    • eriodic Health Assessment (PHA)
    • Dental Readiness
  34. An Expeditionary Medical Facilities (EMF) has up ___ beds to be organized and scaled to fit the requirements identified by the Combatant Commander(COCOM).
    500 beds
  35. A Battalion Aid Station (BAS) is normally comprised of two medical officers and up to how many HM's?

    1. up to 55 HM's
    2. up to 30 HM's
    3. up to 65 HM's
    4. up to 20 HM's
    up to 65 HMs
  36. Which of the following is not a HM administrative responsibility during the operations of a medical clinic?

    1. Greeting the patient entering the clinic or inpatient floor
    2. Opening the clinic and making coffee
    3. Providing initial clinical documentation
    4. Assisting with the referral process
    Opening the clinic and making coffee
  37. Which system was implemented to assist in the projection and allocation of cost for healthcare programs?

    1. DEERS
    2. DIRS
    3. ALHTA
    4. DENCAS
  38. T/F Instances where the beneficiary has a valid ID card and DEERS shows the individual ineligible, or not in the database,eligibility verification by ID Card overrides DEERS.

    Patients who present for non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card but are in the DEERS database will not be provided medical care without first signing a statement that they are eligible and giving the reason why a valid ID card is not in their possession.
  39. T/F In cases where a patient presents without a valid ID card and does not appear in DEERS, non-emergent care will still berendered.
  40. How many days after receiving treatment does a patient have to present a valid ID card before being billed as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-indigent?

    1. 15
    2. 30
    3. 45
    4. 60
    30 days
  41. Who may delay billing on a patient not presenting with a valid ID?

    1. Commanding Officer
    2. Personnel Officer
    3. Third Party Collections
    4. Patient Billing
    Commanding Officer
  42. What is the length of time a newborn can be treated without presenting a valid ID card?

    1. 60 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 6 months
    4. 1 year
    60 days
  43. Which of the following Foreign Military Personnel are not eligible for care at Naval MTF’s?

    1. NATO personnel stationed in the U.S.
    2. Crew of visiting aircraft
    3. Crew of NATO ships in port
    4. Foreign military on vacation in the U.S.
    Foreign military on vacation in the U.S.
  44. Which of the following is not a type of dental care?

    1. Routine
    2. Special
    3. Emergency
    4. Elective
  45. T/F Treatment that is necessary to relieve pain, control bleeding, and manage septic conditions falls under Special Types of dental care.
  46. Of the following, who will be the first to receive dental care?

    1. Active duty - routine
    2. Member of Senior Training Corp -special
    3. Civilian - elective
    4. Family member of active duty -emergency
    Family member of active duty -emergency
  47. What program is used to evaluate the degree of excellence in care delivered and its results for future improvement?

    1. Quality Issuance
    2. Quality Improvement
    3. Quality Assurance
    4. Quality Result
    Quality Assurance
  48. Medical care rendered by healthcare providers to Navy beneficiaries is sometimes considered sub par due to what fact?

    1. Lack of medical skills
    2. Lack of interpersonal relationship skills
    3. Lack of access to care
    4. Lack of healthcare providers
    Lack of interpersonal relationship skills
  49. T/F The Patient Relations Program is the only program that strives to enhance channels of communication between the hospital, staff, and patient populations.
  50. Which program allows patients to voice their satisfactory or unsatisfactory complaints, including those concerning treatment?

    1. Health Care Relations Program
    2. Patient Relations Program
    3. Quality Assurance Program
    4. Patient Contact Point Program
    Patient Contact Point Program
  51. Where would the HM look to find more information in the area of Medical Treatment Records?

    1. MANMED Chapter 16
    2. BUMEDINST 5210.8
    3. MANMED Chapter 6
    4. MANMED Chapter 17
    MANMED CH 16
  52. The Family Advocacy Program identifies, treats, and monitors Navy personnel engaging in which types of behavior?

    1. Spousal abuse
    2. Child abuse
    3. Sexual abuse
    4. All of the above
    All of the above

    SECNAVINST 1752.3 series, Family Advocacy Program and BUMEDINST 6320.70 series
  53. Physical readiness testing is required to be conducted by subordinate commands, who’s medical departments are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?

    1. Providing technical assistance to BUPERS
    2. Conducting lifestyle, fitness, andobesity research
    3. Assisting in the development of exercise prescriptions
    4. Process waivers for completing the PRT
    Process waivers for completing the PRT
  54. T/ F Failure to obtain consent prior to initiation of medical treatment may result in medical malpractice and/or assault and battery.
  55. Who is obligated to provide the patient with all necessary information to make aknowledgeable decision on a proposed medical procedure?

    1. Hospital Corpsman
    2. Medical Provider
    3. Patient Administration Officer
    4. Nurse Corps Officer
    Medical Provider
  56. T/F Consent prior to initiation of medical treatment is required in all routine,emergency, and elective procedures.
  57. What legal doctrine serves as the final authority over and determines the control of substitute consent?

    1. Hospital Rules
    2. Federal Law
    3. State Law
    4. The Joint Commission
    State Law
  58. Who is recommended to act as a witness when the patient is consenting to a medical procedure?

    1. Family Member
    2. Staff member not involved in the procedure
    3. Staff member involved in the procedure
    4. Another medical provider
    Staff member not involved in the procedure
  59. T/F Under the Freedom of Information Act the Navy must make all documents available EXCEPT those that are exempt.
  60. Which policy was established to provide a balance between the public and the privacy of an individual?

    1. Privacy Act of 1974
    2. Freedom of Information Act
    3. HIPPA Privacy Rule
    4. DODINST 6025.18
    Privacy Act of 1974
  61. The HIPAA Privacy Rule allows for disclosure of what information?

    1. Name and Social
    2. Medical Treatment Rendered
    3. Protected Health Information
    4. Dental Treatment Rendered
    Medical Treatment Rendered
  62. Personal Health Information is required to be disclosed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT?

    1. Treatment
    2. Security
    3. Payment
    4. Health Care Operations
  63. Under what act is it unlawful for the United States military to be used as an enforcer or to assist in the enforcement of federal or state law?

    1. Privacy Act
    2. HIPPA Security Act
    3. Freedom of Information Act
    4. Posse Comitatus Act
    Posse Comitatus Act
  64. Who is authorized to deliver an Active Duty member to federal law enforcement authorities and based upon what actions?

    1. Commanding Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
    2. Medical Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
    3. Executive Officer, presentation of afederal warrant
    4. Commanding Officer, presentation of an accusation
    Commanding Officer, presentation of a federal warrant
  65. Prisoners as patients categorized under all of the following categories EXCEPT?

    1. Family member prisoners
    2. Enemy POW and other detained personnel
    3. Non-military federal prisoners
    4. Military prisoners
    Non-military federal prisoners
  66. Which of the following types of prisoners are only allowed emergency medical treatment?

    1. Family member prisoners
    2. Enemy POW and other detainedpersonnel
    3. Non-military federal prisoners
    4. Military prisoners
    Non-military federal prisoners
  67. T/F All military prisoners with active sentences are allowed to receive medical care.
  68. Where can the HM locate guidance on care, evaluation, and medico-legal documentation for a victim alleged of rape or sexual assault?

    1. NCIS
    2. OPNAVINST 1752.1
    3. SECNAVINST 5800.11
    4. NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3
    • NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3
    • (Medicaland Dental Care for Eligible Persons at Navy Medical Department Facilities)
  69. What is the reason many legal battles are lost?

    1. Victim refuses to speak out
    2. Improper documentation of medical treatment
    3. Failure to adhere to proper administrative procedures
    4. The many mistakes made by Hospital Corpsman, nurses, and medical providers
    Failure to adhere to proper administrative procedures
  70. What does DEERS stand for?
    Defense Enrollment Eligibility ReportingSystem (DEERS).

    the DEERS verification process is outlined in OPNAVINST 1750.2 series, DefenseEnrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
  71. T/F Clerk performing the eligibility check can deny the requested care if the pateint is not eligible in DEERS.
    • FALSE
    • UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES WILL THE CLERK PERFORMING THE ELIGIBILITY CHECK DENY THE REQUESTED CARE. Only command designated supervisory personnel can perform this function
  72. List the 9 eligibility overrides:
    • 1. DD 1172
    • (The patient presents an original or copy of the DD 1172 used for DEERS enrollment)
    • 2. All Other Family Members Recently Becoming Eligible for Benefits
    • (New mothers, babies, recent adoption, and dependent parents)
    • 3. New Identification Card Patients presenting with a new valid ID card, issued within the previous 120 days, will not be denied care.
    • 4. Ineligible Due to ID Card Expiration
    • When the database shows a patient as ineligible because of ID card expiration,care may be rendered as long as the patienthas a new ID card issued within the previous120 days. After 120 days, follow the procedure in item 1, above
    • 5. Sponsors Entering Active Duty Status for a Period of Greater than 30 Days
    • (Acopy of orders ordering a reservist or guardsman to an active duty period of greater than 30 days may be accepted for the first 120 days of the active duty period.After that, follow the procedure in item 1 above.
    • 6. Newborns
    • (Newborns will not be denied care for a period of 60 days. On the 61st day the newborn will shift to TRICARE STANDARD if not enrolled in Prime
    • .Enrollment into Prime CANNOT occur unless the newborn is put on the sponsor’sPage 2 and enrolled in DEERS. Newbornsof Dependent Daughters must be approved for Secretary of the Navy Designee or they are not eligible for care.
    • 7. Emergency Care
    • (This is a medical decision and shall be determined by criteria established within the command.)
    • 8. Sponsor’s Duty Station is Outside the 50 United States or has an APO/FPO Address
    • (Family members whose sponsors are assigned outside the 50 United States or to a duty station with an APO/FPO addresswill not be denied care as long as the sponsor is enrolled and eligible in DEERS.
    • 9. Survivors
    • (When an eligibility checkin dicates that a deceased sponsor is not enrolled in DEERS or the survivor is listed as the sponsor; the survivor will be treated on the first visit and referred to the appropriate personnel support detachment(PSD) for correction of the DEERS database. For second and subsequent visits,the survivor will be required to follow the procedure in item 1, above.
    • While deceased,the sponsor remains the sponsor in order to facilitate eligibility for family members.
  73. Which of the following Foreign Military Personnel are eligible for care at Naval MTF’s?

    1. North Atlantic Treaty Organization(NATO) military personnel and their family members stationed in or passing through the United States
    2 Crew and passengers of visiting militaryaircraft
    3. Crews of ships of NATO nations thatcome into port
    4. All of the above
    Foreign Military Personnel These personnel and their family members,assigned through Personnel Exchange Programs or other means, are or may be eligible.
  74. What are the DENTAL priority categories for treatment:
    • Cat. 1A.—Members of the uniformed services on active duty
    • Cat. 1B.—Members of a Reserve Component of the Armed Forces and National Guard personnel
    • Cat. 2.—Family member of active duty members of the uniformed services; family members of persons who died while in such a status
    • Cat. 3.—Members of the Senior Reserve Officers’ Training Corps
    • Cat. 4.—Retired members of the uniformed services and their family members (includingfamily members of deceased retired members)
    • Cat. 5.—Civilian employees of the Federal Government
    • Cat. 6.—All others
  75. What is the purpose of ROUTINE dental services?
    Routine services are preventive and corrective
  76. What is covered under the ROUTINE dental services:
    • which include:
    • Dental examinations and oral healthinstruction (OHI)
    • Restoration of lost tooth structure
    • Treatment of periodontal conditions
    • Surgical procedures
    • Replacement of missing teeth essential to personal appearance, the performance of military duty, or the
    • proper mastication of food
  77. T/F If abuse is suspected by the HM there is a moral and legal obligation to report the actual or suspected abuse to the chain of command and or legal authorities as appropriate
  78. T/F The policies governing the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Program encompass the Navy’s approach on eliminating alcohol and drug abuse.
  79. What is the Navy's policy on alcohol?

    1. Zero Tolerence
    2. Drink as much as you like
    3. Drink "responsibly"/ Resonsible use
    4. No policy
    Drink "responsibly"/ Resonsible use
  80. What is the Navy's policy on drugs?

    1. Zero Tolerence
    2. As much as you like
    3. Resonsible use
    4. No policy
    Zero Tolerence
  81. Who is the the command’s primary advisor for all alcohol and drug matters.

    1. Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA)
    2. Health and wellness department
    3. The Command Master Chief
    4. Legal Chief
    The Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA)

    OPNAVINST 5350.4 series, Drugand Alcohol Abuse Prevention and Control
  82. What type of consents are there for medical treatment?
    • Informed
    • Implied
  83. Custody of health records is generally vested in the medical department. On ships without a medical department representative,an individual retains custody of the record until which of the following times, if any?
    1. Transfer
    2. Transfer with verification every 6 months
    3. Transfer with annual verification
    4. Never
  84. When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the ship departs port, the health record is?
    1. Retained on board
    2. Turned over to the hospital
    3. Forwarded to the nearest U.S.consulate or embassy
    4. Turned over to another U.S. vessel in port
    Retained on board
  85. The health record jacket of PO3Walter T. Door, 333-44-5555, wouldbe what color?
    1. Blue
    2. Almond
    3. Orange
    4. Pink
  86. T/F The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank.
  87. T/F When a HREC is opened on a servic emember, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC.
  88. Entries to the Chronological Recordof Medical Care, SF 600, when not typewritten, should be made in which color(s) of ink?
    1. Blue
    2. Black or blue-black
    3. Red
    4. Ink color is irrelevan
    Black or blue-black
  89. What is the preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital?
    1. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
    2. SF 600, Chronological Record ofMedical Care
    3. NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History
    4. NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care
    SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
  90. A health record is opened in which of the following cases?
    1. When a member returns to active duty from the retired list
    2. When the original record has been lost
    3. When first becoming a member of the naval service
    4. In all the above cases
    In all the above cases
  91. A well known research group requests medical information to use as part of the basis of a study it is performing. What action, if any, should be taken prior to release?
    1. None; an individual’s medical information may not be released
    2. Commanding officer of the MTFshould release information immediately
    3. Commanding officer of the MTF should check with the Judge Advocate General for advice
    4. Commanding officer of the MTF should forward the request to BUMED for guidance
    Commanding officer of the MTF should forward the request to BUMED for guidance
  92. In which of the following circumstance should the health record be verified?
    1. Reporting to a new command
    2. When transferring
    3. Annually
    4. All of the above
    All of the above
  93. Under which of the following circumstances would a member’s health record NOT be closed?
    1. Transfers to a new duty station
    2. Transfers to the Fleet Reserve
    3. Placed on the retired list
    4. Declared missing in action
    Transfers to a new duty station
  94. On which of the following documents would a notation be made concerning a member’s status as a deserter?
    1. SF600
    2. NAVMED 6100/1
    3. NAVMED 6150/2
    4. Both 1 and 3
    SF 600
  95. T/F A member separated for disability should receive a copy of the HREC to present to the VA so that the member’s claim can be processed expeditiously
  96. Which of the following FMP codes will be placed in the two diamonds preceding the SSN for an active duty member?
    1. 01
    2. 20
    3. 30
    4. 60
  97. Which of the following phrases is written in the lower portion of the patient’s identification box for retired 0-7 and above personnel?
    1. “VIP”
    2. “ADMIRAL”
  98. Which of the following symbols and which color of felt-tip pen is used in the alert box if the patient has an allergy or sensitivity?
    1. “A/S” Black
    2. "X” Red
    3. “A/S” Red
    4. “X” Black
    “X” Black
  99. Which, if any, of the following color felt-tip pens is used to mark the annual verification section on the right-hand side of the dental record jacket?
    1. Red
    2. Blue
    3. Black
    4. None of the above
  100. The form printed on the inside of the front jacket cover should be completed in what type of writing utensil?
    1. Pen
    2. Pencil
    3. Crayon
    4. Felt tip pen
  101. Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
    1. Back cover
    2. Back of front page (Part I)
    3. Back of center page (Part III)
    4. Front of center page (Part II)
    Front of center page (Part II)
  102. Dental Heath Questionnaire
    NAVMED 6600/3
  103. Routinely used for in-patient admission and filed in the IREC.
    SF 509
  104. Primary form for all outpatient care
    SF 600
  105. Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flow Sheet
    DD 2766
  106. Eyewear Prescription
    DD 771
  107. Consultation Sheet
    SF 513
  108. A member's personal record of immunization
    SF 509
  109. Dental Exam Form
  110. Dental Treatment Form
  111. Dental Exam Forms should be filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
    1. Back of center page (Part III)
    2. Front of center page (Part II)
    3. Inside back cover (Part IV)
    4. Inside front cover (Part I)
    Back of center page (Part III)
  112. Where is the Forensic Examination form located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
    1. Inside back cover (Part IV)
    2. Back of front page (Part I)
    3. Back of center page (Part III)
    4. Front of center page (Part II)
    Inside back cover (Part IV)
  113. The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A is filed in which section ofthe NAVMED 6150/21?
    1. Back cover
    2. Front cover
    3. Inside back cover (Part IV)
    4. Inside front cover (Part I)
    Inside back cover (Part IV)
  114. When using the terminal digit filing system, how many equal sections are the central files divided into?
    1. 100
    2. 200
    3. 300
    4. 50
  115. All forms documenting patient care placed in the NAVMED 6150-21/30 will contain which of the following patient information?
    1. FMP and sponsor’s SSN
    2. Name- last, first, middle initial
    3. Sponsor’s branch of service andstatus
    4. All of the above
    all of the above
  116. Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the Health Record Receipt?
    1. NAVMED 6150/1
    2. NAVMED 6150/6
    3. NAVMED 6150/7
    4. NAVMED 6150/8
    • NAVMED 6150/7
    • Charge out Form NAVMED 6150/7, Health Record Receipt also known as the pink card
  117. Sequential bite wing radiographs should be filed in which section of the NAVMED6150/21-30?
    1. Back of center page (Part III)
    2. Front of center pager (Part II)
    3. Inside back cover (Part IV)
    4. Inside front cover (Part I)
    Inside front cover (Part I)
  118. What is the maximum time allowed forthe retention of loose treatment forms?
    1. 3 months
    2. 6 months
    3. 1 year
    4. 2 years
    1 year
  119. Image Upload 1
  120. A member’s health records may be closed due what circumstances?
    • Death or declared death
    • Discharge
    • Resignation
    • Release from active duty
    • Retirement
    • Transfer to the Fleet Reserve or release to inactive duty
    • Missing or missing in action (MIA; when officially declared as such)
    • Desertion (when officially declared as such)
    • Disenrollment as an officer candidate or midshipman
  121. When a member is officially declared a deserter, document the event fact on what forms?
    • SF 600
    • EZ603A
    • NAVMED 6150/4.
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NAVETRA 14295A HM Manual.txt
NAVETRA 14295A HM Manual