Micro Test # 2

  1. Koch's postulates demonstrate what?
    that a particular germ causes a particlular dieseas
  2. What does Koch's Postualte # 1 state?
    Microbe must be present in every case of the disease.
  3. What bacterium causes Anthrax? where is it found?
    • Bacillus
    • in the soil
  4. What species of Bacillus cuasative agent of Anthrax?
    Bacillus anthracis
  5. What special strucutre do Anthrax make that help it survive?
    Endospores
  6. What is the dormant stage of a bacteria that helps it get from one host to another?
    Endospore
  7. What is Woolsorter's Disease?
    Anthrax from sheep = the humans got it from shearing/working with sheep.
  8. What does Koch's second postulate state?
    Agent must be isolated from a diseased host and must grow in pure culture.
  9. What is a liquid medium used to grow cultures?
    Broth
  10. What is a medium?
    set of nutrients that grow microbes in the lab.
  11. If you lab broth is cloudy in appearance, you would call it what?
    Turbidity
  12. What is it called when you have chunks/ long chains growing in your culture?
    Flocculaent
  13. What is the scum layer gorwing on top of a cultre called?
    Pellicle = usally means the cabteria likes air, they go up top to get air.
  14. What is the stuff at the bottom of your culture called?
    sediment
  15. What does CFU stand for?
    Colony Forming Unit
  16. Where would you find a CFU?
    on a streaked petry dish
  17. Would a virus grown on an ager?
    NO, it needs a live cell
  18. What is agar?
    a complex of polysaccharide extracted from a marine algae
  19. Liquid agar in a test tube is called what?
    a slant
  20. What do you use to transfer a bacteria sample onto an agar?
    a sterile inoculating loop
  21. What is the purpose of streaking a petry plate?
    to spread out the bacteria
  22. What does Koch's third postulate state?
    When the agent froma pure culture is inoculated into healthy, but seceptible , experimental hosts, the agent must cause the same disease.
  23. What is the appearance of a specimen growing in your petry plate called?
    Colony Morphology
  24. What is cellular morphology?
    the appearance of cells you observe through a microscope
  25. What is a culture?
    A population of bacteria.
  26. Being able to see different types of bacteria present in a culture is an advantage of what?
    Using a solid agar
  27. By usung a solid agar you can better estimate what?
    the amount of each type of bacteria present
  28. What is the only way to isolate a pure culture?
    Use a solid agar for growing
  29. What does Koch's fourth postulate state?
    The agent must be reisolated from the inoculated disesed experimental host and identified as being the identical to the original secific agent.
  30. Flagella is what?
    a whip/ tail like appendange found on bacterium
  31. What is pluaral for flagella?
    Flagellum (more than one)
  32. What is it called when a bacteria has one flagella?
    Monotrichous
  33. Define Monotrichous =
    singular flagella found on a bacterium
  34. What are polar flagella?
    monotrichous bacteria = haveing the flagella at one end or the other
  35. What is Amphitrichous
    bacteria with two flagella
  36. Define Peritrichous =
    a bacteria with flagellum all over the surface
  37. If a bacteria have tufuts of flagellum are called what?
    Lophotrichous
  38. What is Proteus vulgaris and what is it a good example of ?
    • a peritrichous bacteria with flagellum all over it
    • Causes UTI's (section 5) anaerobic, G+, Rod
  39. Name a bacteria that have cillia:
    NONE - bacteria do not have cillia
  40. What are Fimbriae ?
    short tiny projections or fingers
  41. What bacteria have diplococcus shape and are covered in fimbriae?
    Neisseria gonorrehea
  42. What does diplococcus refer to?
    • shape = divided into pairs
    • Image Upload 2
  43. Define Pili =
    tiny, hollow, projection, through which bacteria transfer plasmids
  44. What is the pathway through which bacteria transfer DNA/ genetic material?
    Pili (singular) Pilus (plural)
  45. Define plasmid =
    extra piece of DNA/ genetic material is in that gets shared between bacteria - not all bacteria have them.
  46. Members of a species that posses a plasmid are called what?
    a strain
  47. What is a strain
    genetic mutation of a species
  48. What king of bacteria carries a few genes including the genes for the the pilus, antibotic resistance, special toxins, structures...
    F+ (like being male)
  49. What is a bacteria called that has received plasmid from another bacteria .. that would now have the genes for a pilus.
    F- (negative)
  50. What is the process of passing on plasmids to more F+ cells?
    conjugation
  51. Where would you find genes for antibiotics or special strucutress?
    In the plasmid (DNA/genetic material)
  52. name the protective structure found outside of the cell wall of the organism that secretes it:
    Capsule
  53. What are the benefits of a capsule?
    • helps stick to host tissues/ enviornmental surfaces
    • harder to be eaten by phagocytes - slippery, harder to catch
    • harder for antigens to be recognized
  54. What special features do Pseudomonas have?
    • capsules & flagella
    • stick to paddles, but swim when in water
  55. What is a bacteria found in hospitals and every day life that highly resistant to antibiotics?
    Pseudomonas
  56. What feature does Streptococcus mutans / S. sanguis have?
    capsules to stick to your teeth
  57. What are spiral shaped bacteria called?
    spirllium
  58. What is a band of contractile protien called?
    Axil fillament
  59. what special feature do spirochaetes have?
    Axial filament
  60. What do spiral shaped bacteria have a flagella or an axial filament?
    Flagella
  61. What bacteria causes syphillis? what feature does it have?
    Treponema pallidum / axial filament
  62. What is the major compenent of a bacterial cell wall?
    Peptidoglycan
  63. What is peptidoglycan?
    major component of a bacteria cell wall
  64. What is peptidoglycan composed of?
    alternating sugars linked by tetrapeptides

    N. acetylglucosamine / N. acetylmuranic acid
  65. Gram negative cell walls have 2 components, name them:
    • 1) 1-2 layers peptidoglycan
    • 2) outer memberane
  66. What is composed of phospholipids / lipoprotiens / lipopolysaccarides?
    The outer membrane of a Gram negative cell wall
  67. Division I bacteria are Gram negative? or postive?
    Gram Negitive
  68. What portion of a Gram negative bacteria is endotoxic?
    the lipid portion - the bacteria dies, it breaks down and releases toxins which illicit a non specific immune response
  69. Fever, inflammation, redness ... these are what type of immune response?
    Non-specific
  70. What has a thin, heterogenous, endotoxic cell wall?
    Gram negative bacteria
  71. Gram negative bacteria appear what color when using the Gram stain technique?
    RED
  72. A cell wall with one component is called what?
    Homogenous / Gram negative
  73. A cell wall with 2 componenets is called what?
    Heterogenous / Gram Negative
  74. What make a Gram positive cell wall thick?
    6-8 layers of peptidoglycan
  75. Protienation waste comes from what and cause wha type of response?
    excretions from endotoxins of a Gram positive bacteria; they illicit a specific immune response/ symptoms
  76. What special feature do most Cocci bacteria have?
    Capsule - which make them sticky - espicially those with cocci in the name
  77. Clostridium are know for what?
    • excreteing neuro-toxins that cause specific immune responses
    • C. tetaxi
    • C. perfringens (gang-green)
    • C. botulinum
    • C. difficile
  78. What bacteria have a plasma membrane?
    ALL
  79. What type of bacteria cause food intoxication?
    Gram positive / get sick quick b/c they excrete exotoxins on the food
  80. Food infection is caused by what?
    Gram negative bacteria - they die and release endotoxins
  81. What can benefit bacteria by providing protection from stomach acids?
    Outer Membrane of Gram negative bacteria
  82. Name a bacteria that are Gram - and cause food infection:
    Samonella
  83. Staphylococcus causes what type of food poisoning?
    Intoxication / Gram positive food poisoning
  84. Facultative anerobic Gram negative bacteria is important why?
    They include Family Enterobacteriacae from section 5 = enteric flora
  85. Gram negative have ______ walls.
    Thin walls
  86. What is the most common STD?
    Chlamydia trachoma
  87. Name 2 obligate intracellular parasites:
    Rickettsias & Chlamydia
  88. Chlamydia & Rickettsias have what type of cell wall?
    Thin walls, but they ARE Gram positive
  89. What division do Rickettsias & Chlamydia belong to?
    Division I = because they have a thin cell wall
  90. Division II are Gram _____.
    Gram positive / they have a thick cell wall.
  91. Coliform & Enteric bacteria are Gram ____.
    Negative
  92. Name a Gram + normal bowel flora:
    • Enterococcus fecalis
    • it is also Vancomycin resistant (VRE)
  93. What does Streotococcus pyogenes cause?
    • Peurperal fever
    • Rheumatic fever
    • Scarlett fever
    • Strep throat
  94. What does pyogenes mean?
    puss generating
  95. What division do Acid Fast bacteria belong in?
    Divison II
  96. Mycolic acid is what?
    wax found in the cell wall of acid fast bacteria
  97. Mycrobacterium genus have what special charecteristic?
    thick wall (acid fast) /

    TB / Leprosy
  98. What is the mordant in acid fast staining?
    the wax in the cell wall - mycolic acid
  99. Acid fast stains are in what genus?
    Mycobacteria
  100. Tuberculosis is caused by what?
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  101. Mycology is the study of what?
    Molds / Fungi
  102. Mycology does not apply to what?
    mycobacteria / mycoplasm
  103. Division III bacteria have what type of cell wall?
    NONE
  104. Section 10 includes Mycoplasma bacteria, what does this mean?
    the plasma membrane is the outter boundary, they lack a cell wall.
  105. What antibiotic targets the cell wall; enzyme that peptidoglycan?
    Penicillin or Cephalosporins
  106. What treatment would disrup the plasma membrane by interuppting ATP production:
    Neosprorin
  107. What treatment targets ribosomes by inhibiting protien synthesis?
    Tetracycline / Erythromycin
  108. What type of ribosomes do bacteria have?
    FREE
  109. 70s / 80s are what type of measurements?
    density of bacterial ribosomes is 70s
  110. Where do bacteria make ATP?
    plasma membrane
  111. Ribosomes oin bacteria make what?
    protiens for the cells use
  112. What is an inclusion?
    stored nutrients in bacteria
  113. Graying of the teeth is a side effect of what treatment?
    Tetracycline, which interfers with protien synthesis, which will effect the growth of a young child or pregnant woman
  114. What are some side effects of antibiotics?
    • kill all flora
    • sun sensitivity due to decrease melinin production
    • bacteria become resistant to drugs
  115. Firmcutes have a FIRM cell wall or Division ____.
    II
  116. Gracilicutes are what division?
    I - gracefull / thin cell wall
  117. Tenericutes are what division?
    III - tender / no cell wall
  118. Mendosacutes are what division?
    IV
  119. What is the general name for bacteria that cause ENT bacteria?
    phneumococcus (not a genus name)
  120. What bacteria have no cell wall, just a plasma membrane?
    Mycobacteria
  121. What bacteria respond to ampacillin ?
    • staphylococcus / streptococcus
    • used on ENT infections
  122. What do we have in our plasma membrane to toughen it up?
    sterols (cholestrols)
  123. What happens in the first phase of bacterial population growth?
    Acclimation or Log growth
  124. What bacteria are characteristically pyogenic?
    Streptococcus / Staphylocccus

    they also have capsules to make them sticky
  125. What happens in the Log phase of bacterial growth?
    Exponential growth, this is the optimal time for growth
  126. The acclimation phase is also called what?
    Lag phase = no net change in cell numbers.
  127. In what phase does the number of cell growths = the number of deaths?
    Stationary phase / carrying capacity of enviornment
  128. What is the final phase of bacterial population growth ?
    decline / death phaese
  129. What is the fisrt phase of bactrial population growth?
    Lag phase / acclimation phase
  130. How does Ampicillin effect bacteria?
    by disrupting cell wall; enzymes that make the peptidoglycan
  131. Are cocci motile?
    NO, they don't move
  132. Which section has mostly flagellated bacteria?
    Section 5 / G- rods / facultativley anaerobic
  133. Pyogenic bacteria have mostly what shape?
    Cocci - puss generation
  134. Name 2 Spirachetes:
    • Spirillum volutans
    • Treponema pallidum (syphillus)
    • Borrelia = causes lyme dease
  135. Strepto is a ____ arrangement.
    Chain
  136. Staphylo are a ____ arrangement.
    Cluster
  137. What bacteria is known for it diploccocus arranement?
    Neisseria gonorrhea
  138. What bacteria is known for its yellow color?
    Micrococcus luteas
  139. Serratia marcescens is a Gram ____ bacteria, which would appear ___ in color when stained.
    Negative / pink
  140. What bacteria appears red on a petry plate?
    Serratia marcescens = produces red pigment
  141. What bacteria is Gold in appearance?
    • Stapylococcus aureus
    • G+ / cocci / Section 12
  142. What bacteria are G+ Endospore forming ?
    Bacillus anthracis & Clostridium difficlie
  143. Bacilllus megaterium is Gram ___.
    • positive (section 13)
    • Obligate anaerobe
  144. What is a granuale/ who has them?
    inclussion / Corynebacterium (diptheria)
  145. What staining techiniques does NOT include heat fixing?
    Negative stain
  146. Plasmodia is what?
    the protozoan parasitic protist that causes malaria
  147. Where do we make ATP ?
    mitochondria
  148. What is the endospore coat made of?
    Dipicolinic acid, peptidyglycan, protiens, hard salts (calicium ions)
  149. What makes endospores heat resistant?
    Dipicolinic acid
  150. Wha bacteia has a virus that makes it patheogenic?
    Corynebacterium diptheriae = the granule
  151. Where would I found peptidoglycan?
    • in the bacteria cell wall
    • 1-2 in Gram -
    • 6-8 in Gram +
  152. Where would you find an outer memebrane?
    • Gram negative cell wall =
    • 1-2 layers of peptidoglycan in cell wall
    • outter layer is the OUTER MEMBRANE is lypid endotoxins
  153. What is bacteriostatic?
    Penecillin = stops bacteria from dividing = effects cell wall
  154. Name an air loving bacteria:
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa = obligate aerobe
  155. What are Psychropiles?
    cold loving organisms
  156. Microphiles are ______ loving organisms.
    love a little bit of air; grow just below th surface of in a test tube.
  157. Lactobacillus is a _____ loving organism.
    acid / Acidophile
  158. Vibrio like aht type of envirnment?
    Alkaline / alkalinophiles
  159. Give an example of an Alkalinophile:
    Vibrio cholerae
  160. Clostridium tetanii is an example of what type of organism?
    • Anaerobic, Gram +, ROD
    • in the absense of oxygen
  161. What are 2 examples of Facultative anaerobe?
    Bacillus / Staphylococcus
  162. What type of bacteria is associated with food poisoning from chicken?
    Salmonella
  163. What type of bacteria is associated with food poisoning from fish?
    Shingella
  164. What causes bubonic plague?
    Yerusnia pestis
  165. What causes food poisining from beef?
    Escherichis
  166. What causes a vaginosis?
    Gardnella vaginalis
  167. Name 2 obligate intracellular parasites?
    • Rickettsiae & Chlamydiae
    • have a thin cell wall / Division I
Author
saraherin
ID
136309
Card Set
Micro Test # 2
Description
Micro Test # 2
Updated