REHS/RS Test

  1. What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under five years of age?

    a) Neisseria meningitides
    b) Group B Streptococci
    c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    d) Haemophilus influenzae type B
    d) Haemophilus influenzae type B
  2. Common causes of failure of septic tank seepage field systems include improper sizing,nonsuitable soil, nonservicing, and




    A) leaking kitchen and bath fixtures.
  3. Which of the following is the MOST critical step before detailed information is collected?




    C) Determine how the information will be used.
  4. How is "giardiasis" USUALLY transmitted to others?




    B) Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual
  5. Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies ensures that public health and welfare are protected?




    B) Regulatory responabilities
  6. Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?




    B) Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)
  7. What is an epidemic?




    A) The occurence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy
  8. What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease?




    D) Skin
  9. Swimmer's itch is a common name for which of the following diseases?




    B) Schistosomiasis
  10. Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infections disease?




    C) eat disinfection
  11. Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with




    D) contaminated food.
  12. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with

    a) Dracunculus medinensis.
    b) Staphylococcus aureus.
    c) Escherichia coli 0157:H7.
    d) Salmonella typhimurium.
    c) Escherichia coli 0157:H7.
  13. The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT

    a) lag phase.
    b) control of disease source.
    c) mode of transmission.
    d) susceptibility.
    a) lag phase.
  14. Which one of the following pharases MOST accurately describes the term endemic?




    B) Constant presence of an illness
  15. The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the




    B) incubation period.
  16. An employer is held liable for the torts of its employees committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as




    B) parens patriae.
  17. Performance of an authorized act in a unauthorized manner is called




    C) misfeasance.
  18. An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called an order of




    D) embargo.
  19. What is the federal agency that regulates food additives?




    D) Food and Drug Administration
  20. When a legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps a sanitarian should take is to




    B) keep accurate records.
  21. How is the term "contamination" defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?




    C) Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance
  22. What is the MAXIMUM accumulated time that potentially hazardous foods can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?




    B) 4 hours
  23. What is the MINIMUM period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?




    B) 20 seconds
  24. The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate?




    A) Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment
  25. What is the source of scombroid poisoning?




    D) Histamines in the muscle of fish
  26. What is the MOST effective proctive for preventing trichinosis in people?




    C) Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked
  27. Why are some foods classified as potentially hazardous?




    D) They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms.
  28. What is the MOST important rule of food storage?




    B) Follow the "first in, first out" rule
  29. What is the MOST common contributing factor to foodborne illness?




    A) Improper holding temperatures
  30. What is the BEST means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?




    D) Adequate refrigeration and cleanliness
  31. What is the usual mode of infection from salmonella?




    B) Ingestion of contaminated food
  32. What should NOT be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investication?




    D) Freeze
  33. What is the PRIMARY requirement in designing a food service facility?




    B) Cleanability
  34. All of the following are signs of spoiled fish EXCEPT

    a) strong odor.
    b) elastic flesh.
    c) gray gills.
    d) sunken eyes.
    b) elastic flesh.
  35. Which of the following shellfish are MOST likely to cause illness?




    D) Oysters
  36. Which food does not require refrigeration at 41 F (5 C)?




    D) Ultra-pasteurized creamers
  37. Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways EXCEPT

    a) metal locked cabinet.
    b) lowest shelf in the storage room.
    c) above the dishwashing sinks.
    d) in the basement separate from food and othe chemicals.
    c) above the dishwashing sinks.
  38. Unpasteurized eggs should be cooked




    C) to 145 F for 15 seconds.
  39. What type of well is considered LEAST likely to become contaminated?




    C) Drilled
  40. Diatomaceous earth filters




    B) should be supplemented by a chlorination system.
  41. Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through




    B) smooth clay.
  42. What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places?




    D) Slow sand
  43. All of the following are used to disinfect water EXCEPT




    B) fluorine.
  44. Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods EXCEPT

    a) hydrostatic loops.
    b) vacuum breakers.
    c) air gap separation.
    d) backpressure units.
    a) hydrostatic loops.
  45. Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water?




    D) Activated carbon
  46. Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks, and flushed for how long?




    D) 2 to 3 minutes
  47. What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water?




    D) Lead
  48. The wastewater from the flushing of a water closet, latrine, or privy is referred to as




    D) black water.
  49. If a septic tank is pumped during a wet period, the




    D) tank may float out of the ground.
  50. Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following EXCEPT




    A) potassium.
  51. Which of the following is LEAST important when reducing sewage to gases?




    A) Earthworms
  52. A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide (H2S). The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator and supplied air?




    D) No, because oxygen content and methane were not tested
  53. All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant EXCEPT which one?




    C) Long-lasting residual
  54. Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients EXCEPT



    C) magnesium.
  55. What does a mottled brown and red soil indicate?




    B) Inadequate aeration methods
  56. Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered UNLESS




    C) impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 feet.
  57. Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce




    C) EPA priority pollutants
  58. According to the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), how must hazardous household waste be disposed?




    B) Household waste is exempt form RCRA requirements.
  59. The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of




    D) garbage disposal.
  60. A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a MAJOR contributor of lead to the environment?




    D) Lead acid batteries
  61. All of the following are considered advantages of using the "shredded solid waste" landfill method EXCEPT which one?




    D) It will readily absorb precipitation.
  62. The BEST sanitary landfill method for a location with rolling terrain is the




    A) area or ramp method.
  63. Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history?




    B) The business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of.
  64. Which of the following is NOT a type of hazardous waste incinerator?




    C) Pressurized
  65. Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous substances?

    a) Clean Water Act
    b) Federal Water Pollution Control Act
    c) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
    d) Solid Waste Disposal Act
    c) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
  66. A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions BEST describes




    C) risk.
  67. Which of the following sampling devices is BEST for collecting undisturbed soil samples?




    C) Split spoon
  68. What is the term for a statistical estimate of an oral dose of a chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population?

    a) LC50
    b) LD50
    c) EC50
    d) ED50
    b) LD50
  69. The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following EXCEPT




    A) the pH of the substance.
  70. Which respiratory device provides the MAXIMUM protection?




    D) Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece
  71. The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know-Act (SARA Title III) requires the disclosureof all of the following EXCEPT type and quantities of




    A) all chemicals produced on site.
  72. For first responders at an incident, which one of the following is listed correctly according to order of importance?




    B) Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property protection
  73. Rocky Mountian spotted fever is transmitted by




    B) dog ticks.
  74. What are the peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones?




    B) Spring and fall
  75. Which one of the following pesticides can be legally used in the United States by the public?




    B) Diazinon
  76. Poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac contain oleoresin that is found in all parts of the plant EXCEPT the




    D) wood.
  77. Psittacosis is MOST commonly spread by




    C) pigeons.
  78. Hay fever is correctly referred to as




    D) pollenosis.
  79. Which of the following is MOST effective for controlling ragweed?




    C) 2, 4-D
  80. The term rad means




    C) radiation absorbed dose.
  81. Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds?




    B) Alpha particles
  82. Beta radiation is MOST commonly blocked by which one of the following materials?




    C) Glass or plastic
  83. Microwaves are reflected by




    B) metals.
  84. The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in




    D) electron volts (eV).
  85. What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent?




    C) Human disease
  86. No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than




    A) 5 feet.
  87. Given: An employer moves employees who have reached the upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, in order to prevent further exposure.

    What type of hazard control is this?




    C) Administrative control
  88. A negative pressure fit test for a protective mask




    A) is done by placing both palms against the intake filters.
  89. Quantitative risk assessment USUALLY measures human exposure through all of the following EXCEPT




    B) computer models.
  90. The MOST likely cause of photochemical smog is due to




    B) heavy motor vehicle traffic.
  91. The industries LEAST likely to be a source of sulfur diozide pollution are




    A) hazardous waste incinerators.
  92. Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a




    A) fog, mist, or dust.
  93. Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2 to 3 microns in size on




    C) high volume samplers.
  94. The MOST common type of noise measurement device used for initial inspections is the




    C) sound level meter.
  95. Oxygenated fuels are intended to reduce emissions levels of




    B) Carbon monoxide
  96. Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers, and




    A) indirect waste piping.
  97. The drain line of an ince machine should connect to the sewer system through




    D) an open recepticle with an air gap.
  98. Vent gasses from a coal burning furnace combined with a high moisture inside a chimney will form




    A) sulfuric acid.
  99. What is the PRIMARY cause of death resulting from automobile exhaust accumulation in garages?




    A) Carbon monoxide
  100. The end of a waste pipe should terminate above the rim of a sink directly connected to the drainage system by at LEAST




    A) 2 inches.
Author
SethLNelson
ID
127433
Card Set
REHS/RS Test
Description
Flashcards for the REHS/RS Test
Updated