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Western Physiology II

  1. What are the 5 levels of living matter, in order?
    • Cell
    • Tissue
    • Organ
    • System
    • Organism
  2. Breakdown of organic matter, usually with release of energy
    Catabolism
  3. Buildup of organic matter, usually requiring energy
    Anabolism
  4. Name the two types of Metabolism
    • Catabolism
    • Anabolism
  5. What does the dorsal body cavity house?
    • Brain
    • Spinal Cord
  6. What does the ventral body cavity house?
    • Thoracic (Lungs and Mediastinum) Cavity
    • Abdominopelvic (Heart, Aorta, Vena Cava, and soft tissues) Cavity
  7. What separtes the Thoracic and Abdominopelvic cavities?
    Diaphragm
  8. The Abdominopelvic Cavity is subdivided into these two cavities?
    • Abdominal (Peritoneal Cavity - Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Large & Small Intestines, etc) [Retroperitoneal Cavity contains both Kidneys]
    • Pelvic (Bladder, Femal reproductive organs (uterus, ovaries, tubes)
  9. This lines the outside of the Lung, it is not the part of the respiratory system
    Pleura
  10. How may layers does the pleural membrane have?
    • 2
    • Inner and outer
  11. This covers the abdominal organs
    Peritoneum
  12. Define Parietal
    Outer Layer
  13. Define Visceral
    Inner Layer
  14. What is another word for Pleural Effusion?
    Edema
  15. Made from simple sugars, sometimes referred to as polysaccharides or starches
    Carbohydrates
  16. Includes steriods, waxes, and fats. Triglycerides
    Lipids
  17. Made from Amino Acids. There are a total of 20 amino acids in the human body. These are amino acids not made up by the body, but instead have to be obtained by consumption of meat. Amino Acids are made from nucleic acids (DNA)
    Proteins
  18. DOLOR
    Pain
  19. TUMOR
    Swelling
  20. CALOR
    Heat
  21. RUBOR
    Redness
  22. What is the begining process of all Western Diseases?
    Inflammation
  23. Has a biconcave shape
    The only cell in the body without a nucleus
    Performs gas exchange
    Red Blood Cell (RBC)
  24. What are the 3 types of Muscles in the body?
    • Skeletal (voluntary) striated
    • Smooth (involuntary - autonomic nervous system control) deep to body
    • Cardiac (looks like skeletal, acts like smooth)
  25. What is the function of the Paranasal Sinus?
    • 1. Warms the inhaled air
    • 2. Humidify / Moisten the inhaled air
    • 3. Filter
  26. Cartilaginous structure connecting the pharynx and trachea at the level of cervical vertebrae. It is composed of connective tissue containing 9 pieces of cartilage shaped like a box.
    Larynx
  27. The largest cartilage of the larynx; it is visible and palpable above the hyoid bone anteriorly
    Thyroid Cartilage (Adam's Apple)
  28. Shaped like a signet ring, connects the larynx and trachea
    Cricoid Cartilage
  29. Leaf-shaped lid at the entrance to the larynx. It closes and covers the larynx when food is being swallowed from the pharynx to the esophagus.
    Epiglottis
  30. What is another term for Chemical Pneumonia
    Aspiration
  31. When food and water accidentally goes into the airway. What is that called?
    Aspiration
  32. The sac between the visceral and parietal pleura which is generally lined with fluid
    Pleural Space
  33. Air entering pleural space is called?
    Pneumothorax
  34. When air is introduced into the pleural space (during chest trauma from motor vehicle accident (MVA), or puncture of thoracic cavity as with an acupuncutre needle), a pleural cavity is created and the lung collapses (partially or totally)
    Pneumothorax
  35. Water entering the pleural space is called?
    Pleural Effusion (edema)
  36. Contractions occur in a set of respiratory muscles between the ribs, called external intercostals muscles.
    Inspiration
  37. The external intercostals and diaphragm relax
    Breathing Out
    Exhalation
    Expiration
  38. The measuring of breath
    Spirometry
  39. What monitors CO2 levels of the blood?
    Respiratory Control Center (RCC)
  40. How long can one hold his breath?
    Until CO2 gets to critical levels
  41. Where does O2 and CO2 perform gas exchange?
    • Alveoli
    • Image Upload 2
  42. Is breathing entirely voluntary or involuntary?
    Both
  43. What is hyperactive in Hyperactive Airway Disease?
    Bronchial Smooth Muscle
  44. How much of a role (in percent) does the diaphragm play in respiration? External Intercostals?
    • Diaphragm 90%
    • External Intercostals 10%
  45. What are the most common Respiratory Conditions (Hyperactive Airway Disease)?
    • Asthma - the inability to exhale (bronchospasm) (occurs during childhood --> early adulthood)
    • Chronic Bronchitis - inpairment of mucocilliary escalator - persistant cough, esp. in smokers (occurs during age >= 40-50 years)
    • COPD - Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease - lose the abiltiy of elastic recoil (occurs during age>= 60 years)
  46. A 5 year old child playing outdoors for hours and develops sudden wheezing. What does this person have?
    Asthma
  47. A 60 year old smoker with shortness of breath and periodic wheezing. What does this person have?
    COPD
  48. A 45 year old with smokers cough. What does the person have?
    Chronic Bronchitis
  49. What are the causes of bronchospasms?
    Environmental Pollution (i.e. Dust Mites, Pollen, Animal products(dander, feces, saliva, urine), cigarette smoke(including second-hand smoke)
  50. What is the difference between COPD and Emphysema?
    • COPD - Diagnosed clinically
    • Emphysema - Diagnosed by Biopsy
  51. What are the 3 steps of the process of a Nephron?
    • Filtration - non-selective process
    • General Reabsorption
    • Tubular Secretion (10% of the total process)
  52. A collecting duct
    Secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
    Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
  53. This hormone acts primarily on the distal tubules of a nephron
    Aldosterone
  54. Which two hormones work on the distal tubules of nephrons?
    • Aldosterone
    • ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone)
  55. What is the function of the Kidney?
    • Urine Production
    • Produce Erythropoietin (tells bone marrow to produce RBC's)
    • Activates vitamin D (which increases intestinal absorption of Ca2+)
  56. What ions are eliminated in urine?
    • K+ (potassium)
    • H+ (acids)
  57. What are the principle solutes in normal urine?
    • Urea
    • K+ (potassium)
    • H+ (acids)
    • Urobilinogen (from bile)
  58. An analysis of the volume and physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine
    Urinalysis
  59. This is responsible for the pigment of urine and feces
    Bilirubin
  60. What are common conditions (bad things) that can be found in a urinalysis?
    • Diabetes - ketones/glucose not well controlled
    • Gall Stones - elevated bilirubin
    • Kidney Disease - leaking Albumins (proteins); moderate: urinating Albumins
    • UTI - WBC & RBC
  61. What are four physiological ways we lose body fluid?
    • Urination
    • Sweating
    • Breathing
    • Defecation
  62. Movement of water from Low to High solute /osmole concentration
    Osmosis
  63. What is the factor that keeps fluid inside the blood vessel?
    Plasma Osmotic Pressure
  64. What is the most common extracellular ion?
    Sodium
  65. What are some of the common causes of edema?
    • Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) - Blood clot (unilateral edema)
    • Enlarging Cancer Mass (unilateral)
    • Congestive Heart Failure (pump failure) - systematic problem (bilateral)
    • Protein Calorie Malnutrition (anywhere)
  66. Which hormones are NOT under pituitary control?
    • Calcitonin
    • PTH
    • Insulin
    • Glucagon
    • Aldosterone
  67. Which hormone is antagonistic to insulin?
    Glucogon
  68. Insulin and Glucogon regulate what?
    Blood Glucose Levels
  69. When is the blood glucose levels the highest?
    After a Meal (postprandial)
  70. What is the function of insulin? How does it lower the blood glucose?
    Insulin is the carrier protein (faciliated diffusion). Takes the glucose molecule and drive it into the Liver cell.
  71. When is glucogon released?
    In periods of fasting or when blood glucose levels are low. Breaks down glycogen (glycogenesis)
  72. What is calcitonin involved with?
    Bone mineralization by stimulating osteoblasts; drive calcium ions into bone. Also lowers blood calcium levels.
  73. What is PTH involved with?
    Bone demineralization by stimulating osteoclasts to release calcium ions into blood to increase calcium levels in the blood
  74. A 45 year old female who complains of low energy levels, facial swelling, weight gain, despite poor appetite. No neck masses where found on examination, blood TSH is elevated and T4 level is low. What does this person have?
    • Hypothyroidism
    • (Why? age related thyroid conditions, lack of neck mass, myxedema)
  75. A 21 year old complaining of increased thirst and appetite with frequent urination. What does this person have?
    Type 1 Diabetes
  76. What are the 3 P's of Diabetes?
    • Polyuria - excessive urination
    • Polydipsia - excessive thirst
    • Polyphagia - excessive appetite
  77. A 45 year old complaining of fatigue, facial swelling, weight gain, poor appetite. Noted with lump in the neck area.

    a. Grave's Disease
    b. Primary Hypothyroidism
    c. Goiter
    d. Pituitary Adenoma
    • Grave's Disease (key words: antibody attack thyroid, tender mass)
    • Primary Hypothyroidism (key words: no anterior neck mass)
    • Goiter (key words: not enough iodine leads to anterior neck mass)
    • Pituitary Adenoma (key words: over production of TSH leads Hyperthyroidism, excessive weight loss despite over eating, headache, bilateral breast enlargement)

    Answer: Goiter
  78. A 35 year old male with coarse facial features and rough skin. What does he have?
    Acromegaly
  79. A 26 year old female with bilateral nipple discharge with swollen breasts. What does she have?
    Prolactinoma
  80. A 23 year old female with swollen anterior neck lump. What does she have?
    Goiter
  81. A 45 year old patient with COPD, hard to control, usually requiring steroids. What does this person have?
    Cushing's Syndrome
  82. A 45 year old with a lump on one side of the neck (small nodules) and elevated calcium levels. What does this person have?
    Parathyroid Adenoma
  83. A 64 year old with general weakness, weight gain, decreased appetite and facial edema. What condition does this person have?
    Hypothyroidism
  84. Which hormone is NOT under pituitary control?

    a. Growth Hormone
    b. Cortisol
    c. TSH
    d. Aldosterone
    Aldosterone (under renin-angiotenson system)
  85. What is the hormone and bone cell pair for bone demineralization?
    • PTH (Parathyroid Hormone)
    • Osteoclasts
  86. What is the mechanism for type 2 Diabetes?
    Insulin receptor insensitivity
  87. What is the function of LH and FSH in males?
    • LH - produce testosterone
    • FSH - produce sperm
  88. What are negative or adverse effects of testosterone in elderly males?
    • Male pattern baldness
    • Prostate enlargement (possibly cancer)
    • High LDL cholesterol (increase chance of heart disease)
  89. Why do they call it an Inguinal Hernia?
    Small Intestine herniates through Inguinal Canal
  90. The 4 rules of female reproductive system? Length? First day? Average length? Day of Mid-cycle?
    • Length of cycle is 28 day
    • First day of cycle is menses
    • Average length of period 3-5 days
    • Mid-cycle is considered 14 days
  91. What hormone is involved in endometiral growth?
    Estrogen
  92. Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?
    LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
  93. What hormone is elevated after ovulation?
    Progesterone
  94. What hormone is involved in ovarian follicle development?
    Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
  95. Which pituitary hormone is involved with labor or pregnancy?
    Oxytocin
  96. A 32 year old with heavy periods with clots. What does this person have?
    Hemorrhagia
  97. A 16 year old no menses or no cycle. What does this person have?
    Primary Amenorrhea
  98. A 28 year old with a lot of intestinal pain related to her cycle. What does this person have?
    Endometriosis
  99. A 47 year old with benign uterine growth and a lot of pelvic pain. What does this person have?
    Fibroids
  100. A 24 year old female, divorced, has two children, takes birth control pills, has irregular mentrual cycle. Last menstrual period was 15 weeks ago. Urine pregnancy test is negative. What does this person have?
    Secondary Amenorrhea
  101. What is the name of the hormone to test for positive pregnancy?
    hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin)
  102. Which structure produces progesterone after first trimester?
    Placenta
  103. What is an autoimmune disease?
    • The inability to differentiate self (normal body tissue) from non-self (exogenous pathogen)
    • Immune system attacking body tissue
  104. What components make up the Sensory pathway of Peripheral Nervous System?
    • 5 sense organs
    • 12 pairs of cranial nerves
  105. What components make up the Motor pathway of Peripheral Nervous System?
    31 pairs of Spinal Nerves
  106. What components make up the Peripheral Nervous System?
    • Somatosensosry System - consists of 5 sense organs, 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
    • Autonomic Nervous System - consists of Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
  107. What components make up the Central Nervous System?
    • Brain
    • Spinal Cord
  108. The Sympathetic Nervous System belongs to which part of Nervous System (Central or Peripheral)?
    Peripheral
  109. The Cervical Nerve Roots belong to which part of the Nervous System (Central or Peripheral)?
    Peripheral
  110. The Dura Mater belongs to which part of the Nervous System (Central or Peripheral)?
    Central
  111. The Trigeminal Nerve belongs to which part of the Nervous System (Central or Peripheral)?
    Peripheral
  112. What common procedure is important diagnostically/theraputically?
    Spinal Tap (aka Lumbar Puncture)
  113. What space is violated / entered by the needle during a Lumbar Puncture?
    Sub Arachnoid Space
  114. Which Cranial Nerves are responsible for Eye movement?
    CN 3, 4, 6 (Oculamotor)
  115. Which Cranial Nerves pertain to the Face?
    • CN 5 - Trigeminal (Sensory)
    • CN 7 - Facial (Motor)
  116. If we have unilateral facial / cheek / jaw pain, what is condition called?
    • Trigeminal Neuralgia (CN 5 problem)
    • Bell's Palsy (CN 7 problem)
    • CVA (wind stroke) (CN 7 problem)
  117. Which Cranial Nerves are responsible for sensory of taste in the back of the tongue?
    CN 9 - Glossopharyngeal (Sensory)
  118. Which Cranial Nerves are responsible for parasympathetic activity in the body?
    CN 10 - Vagus
  119. Which nerve in involved in neck movement?
    CN 11 - Spinal Accessory Nerve
  120. Someone with a stroke / CVA displays lateral tongue deviation. Which CN is affected?
    CN 12 Hypoglossal (Motor)
  121. In the Cervical Plexus (C1 - C4 nerve roots), there is a condition called "C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphargm alive". Which nerve is impaired?
    Phrenic Nerve
  122. The Brachial Plexus (C5 - T1 nerve roots) forms 3 common problems: Wrist Drop, Claw Hand, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Please identify which nerve is affected for each condition.
    • Wrist Drop - Radial Nerve
    • Claw Hand - Ulnar Nerve
    • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome - Median Nerve
  123. Which nerve is affected in the condition of Sciatica (Unilateral shooting pain down the leg)?
    Common Peroneal division of Sciatic Nerve (prolonged sensory issue will lead to motor problems i.e. Foot Drop)
  124. Increased Heart Rate. Sympathetic or Parasympathetic?
    Sympathetic
  125. Sweating. Sympathetic or Parasympathetic?
    Sympathetic
  126. Pupil Dilation. Sympathetic or Parasympathetic?
    Sympathetic
  127. Good Appetite. Sympathetic or Parasympathetic?
    Parasympathetic
  128. What is the difference between Sympathetic and Parasympathetic?
    • Sympathetic "Fight or Flight"
    • Parasympathetic "Rest and Digest"
  129. What are the 3 physiological functions of the eye?
    • Accomodation of vision (focusing)
    • Regulating the amount of light entering the eye
    • EOM (Extra Ocular Movement, CN 3, 4, 6 (Motor))
  130. In Multiple Sclerosis (MS) what anatomical structure are the antibodies attacking?
    Myelin Sheath
  131. Is damage to nerve cells 100% reversible?
    No
  132. Which plexus in involved with "Foot Drop"?
    Sacral Plexus
  133. Which nerve roots makeup the Brachial Plexus?
    C5-T1
  134. Which structure in involved in Accommodation of Vision?
    Lens
  135. What is the name of the condition associated with Increased Intraocular Pressure?
    Glaucoma
  136. What is the name of the condition associated with Loss of Central Vision?
    Cataracts
  137. What is the name of the condition associated with Focus or Near-Vision?
    Myopia
  138. What is the name of the condition associated with Diabetics routine eye exam?
    Retinopathy
  139. 3 year old child with deviation of eye. What condition is this?
    Strabismus
  140. What 3 physiological components are found in the Media of the Ear?
    • 3 Ossicles - converts sound to electrical impulses (Incus (Anvil), Stapes (Stirrup), Malleus (Hammer)
    • Eustachian Tube (Equalizes Airway Pressure)
    • Ear Drum (Tympanic Membrane, easy for age: 5 months to 5 years to get infection)
  141. Is tinnitus and / or vertigo an Outer, Middle, or Inner Ear problem?
    Inner Ear
  142. What is this disease called when both tinnitus and vertigo occur at the same time?
    Meniere's Disease (both hearing and balance deficit)
  143. What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
    • Active - injection / vaccine
    • Passive - breast feeding
  144. What is the name of the cell type that is responsible for anitbody production?
    Plasma Cell
  145. What cell is affected by HIV?
    T4 / Thelper / CD4
  146. [ADD IMMUNE SYSTEM STUFF HERE]
    [ADD IMMUNE SYSTEM STUFF HERE]
Author
son850
ID
125928
Card Set
Western Physiology II
Description
W Physio
Updated

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