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SOPS EOMB.txt

  1. Which papers and documentation should be onboard and where is it stowed?
    • 2 QRH - In CPT & FO document stowages
    • 2 normal checklists - CPT & FO window
    • Certificate folder - Wardrobe
    • Document folder - Wardrobe
    • Loading form and certificate pad - Bulkhead stowage behind FO seat
    • Airway manual package - Floor
    • NTC booklet - CPT's document stowage
    • Aircraft tech log - Loose
  2. What are the maximum crosswind components with landing and take off with braking action GOOD reported?
    • Take off - 29 Max gust 38
    • Landing - 33 max gust 38
  3. What are the first officer max cross wind limits?
    15 kts (2 stripes), 25 kts (3 stripes)
  4. What is the minimum take off RVR for first officers?
    400m
  5. What is the mimimum visibility for a visual approach for first officers?
    5000m
  6. What are the three things to look for when approach the aircraft?
    • Wheel checks - Check in place
    • Landing gear doors - Check position
    • APU area - Check
  7. If the APU is started on batteries only, within how many minutes of selecting the batteries to AUTO should the APU be started?
    30 minutes
  8. What are the check in the flightdeck for the emergency equipment?
    • Life jackets - Correct number and stowed properly
    • Axe - Correct number and stowed properly
    • Smoke hood - Correct number and stowed properly
    • Portable fire extinguisher (BCF) - Correct number and stowed properly with safety catch in position and red indicator disc
    • Torch - Correct number and stowed properly
    • Escape ropes - stowed
    • Protective gloves - Correct number and stowed properly
  9. What is the procedure to change the performance factor in the MCDU?
    • - Enter 'ARM' in the CHG CODE line
    • - Write the new IDLE/PERF factors
    • - Insert using 6L key
  10. What are the main and secondary engine idle parameters in ISA conditions?
    • N1 = 19.5%
    • N2 = 58.5%
    • EGT = 390 degrees
    • FF = 275 KG/h (600 lb/h)
  11. What is the correction to the flex temperature when engine anti ice i used and not calculated in the performance calculations?
    5 degrees celcius subtracted
  12. What is the correct to the flex temperature when a QNH reduction occurs?
    Subtract 1 degrees for 2 hPa
  13. What is the maximum certified brake temperature prior to take off?
    300 degrees
  14. Performance: The engine out procedures for an engine failure are calculated at the most critical part, which is?
    V1
  15. When is an engine considered to be 'secure'?
    • - After the engine master switch is placed to OFF
    • or in case of fire or damage:
    • - When the fire switch is pushed
    • - First agent is discharged
    • - Second agent is discharged (if light remain illuminated after first)
  16. What is the time limit for takeoff thrust?
    10 minutes
  17. When may EO-SID holding fixes be based on a fix instead of an navaid?
    When the procedure is over the sea, so it allows the a/c to hold over the sea without having to turn back over terrain.
  18. What is the standard EO procedure?
    • - Climb on runway track
    • - Maintain V2 untill clean up
    • - After engine secure and above 1000ft AAAL, push to level off
    • - Initiate acceleration and retract flaps on schedule
    • - Above 1500 ft AAL turn toward the Holding point
  19. What is the procedure in case of an engine failure after V1 but below the standard two engine acceleration altitude (1000ft AAL)?
    Follow the engine failure procedure
  20. What is the procedure in case of an engine failure at or above 1000ft AAL but below engine failure acceleration altitude?
    Continue the climb in the current configuration untill passing acceleration altitude. Follow the ENG FAIL procedure
  21. What is the procedure in case of an engine failure when already established on a SID?
    Turn the nearest way to the ENG FAIL HP
  22. For performance purposes, a damp runway is considered to be...?
    Dry
  23. In the performance calculations, with a dry runway, the use of revere thrust in case of a RTO is considered to be?
    None
  24. In the performance calculations, with a wet runway, the use of reverse thrust in case of an RTO is considered to be?
    Maximum reverse thrust
  25. What is the maximum allowable reduction in thrust of the rated thrust for a flex reduced thrust take off?
    25%
  26. When is assumed temperature takeoff prohibited?
    When the runway is contaminated
  27. What is the maximum crosswind limit on a runway notified as 'may be slippery when wet'?
    20 Kts
  28. What is the minimum runway width permissible?
    30 m
  29. When is dispatch to/from narrow runways (;ess than 45m) no allowed?
    • - Nosewheel steering inop
    • - One brake or more inop
    • Autoland is not permitted
  30. With regards to performance, an increase in which V-speed is requiered to operate on narrow runways?
    Vmcg
  31. What is the APU fuel burn?
    2 KG/Min
  32. What is the taxi fuel burn?
    10 KG/Min
  33. What is the taxi fuel burn in case of an OETD?
    7 KG/MIN
  34. What is the holding fuel burn? (1500ft)
    40 KG/MIN
  35. What is the mximum distance for an adequate aerodrome for both the A319 and A320?
    • A319: 380 nm
    • A320: 400 nm
  36. What is the easyJet standard specific gravity for JET-A1 fuel?
    0.8 KG/Litre
  37. What are the operational loading requierments with passenger loads below 115 passenger?
    • - Remind SCCM to ensure even passenger distribution and report passenger numbers in zone A & B
    • - Ammend the LPC pax distribution accordingly
    • - Recalculate
  38. What are the seat rows for zone A & B in the A319 & a320?
    • A319: Zone A: Rows 1-9 Zone B: Rows 10-18
    • A320: Zone A: Rows 1-10 Zone B: Rows 11-20
  39. If for any reason the male/ female repartition cannot be determined, for W&B purposes, all adult passengers shall be considered..?
    Male
  40. When is it necessary to produce a new loading form and certificate (with regards to LMC)
    • - Plus 5/ minus 10 passengers
    • - Plus/ Minus 500 KGS fuel
    • - Plus/ Minus 500 KGS of load in CP3 or CP4
    • - Plus/ minus 100 KGS of load in CP1
    • - Plus/ minus 100 KGS of load in CP5
  41. If a LMC is negative, what needs to be done to with the T/O perf data?
    Nothing
  42. If a LMC is positive, but below 250 KGS, What needs to be done with the T/O data?
    • The performance speeds remain valid
    • 1 degree taken from flex temperature
  43. The flexible temperature needs to be greater than what?
    Tref (ISA+30) or the actual OAT
  44. What needs to be done to the W&B and the T/O performance when the LMC exceeds 500 kgs?
    New W&B and T/O calculations need to be done
  45. What configuration/ speed should you be at, by 16nm?
    Speed below 250kts
  46. What configuration/ speed should you be at, by 12nm?
    Speed below 210 kts
  47. What configuration/ speed should you be at, by 10 nm?
    Speed 180 kts/ flap 2 (selected speed)
  48. What configuration/ speed should you be at, by 7nm?
    Selected speed 160 kts
  49. What configuration/ speed should you be at, by 5nm?
    Managed speed, flaps 2, geard down
  50. What are the briefing items for the take-off briefing?
    • DOWN-T DIFSRIPP
    • (defects, OEB's, WX. Notams, Taxi)
  51. What is/ are the actions when cleared to a FL above MSA?
    ISIS to STD
  52. What are the actions when passing FL100?
    • SLARPIES
    • S: Seat Belts off
    • L: Landing lights retracted
    • A: ARPT on EFIS CP
    • R: Rad Nav page cleared
    • P:Progress page, check optm FL, REQ FL, HIGH, Bearing/Dist, GPS primary
    • I: ISIS set to STD (should be done when cleared to FL above MSA)
    • E: Ecam status?
    • S: Secondary FLT-PLN copied
  53. What are the items for the PF in the cruise:
    • - 121.5 on VHF2
    • - Radar tilt WX radar set
    • - TCAS to below
    • - Check aircraft systems
    • - PA to pax
  54. What are the items for the PNF when in the cruise?
    • - Fill in OFP
    • - Pass timing and fuel details to PF
    • - Only Weather Shall Delay; (ACARS)
    • O = OOOI status
    • W = Weather
    • S = Service message
    • D = Delay message
  55. What are the items for the PF befvore the brief:
    • - Set ISIS to QNH (must be done by FL200)
    • - Autobrake set
    • - LS push buttons
  56. What should be done when on radar HDGS from the approach controller during the apprioach?
    extend the centerline (activate approach)
  57. What are the before pushback items for the PF?
    - Beacon on
  58. What are the after start items for the PF?
    • - ENG MODE SELEC...NORM
    • - APU BLEED....OFF
    • - ANTI ICE....A/R
    • - APU MASTER....A/R
  59. What are the before pushback items for the PNF?
    - Transponder XPNDR
  60. What are the after start items for the PNF?
    • - GROUND SPOILERS....ARM
    • - RUDDER TRIM....ZERO
    • - FLAPS LEVER....SET
    • - PITCH TRIM....SET T/O CG
    • - ECAM DOOR....CHECK
    • - ECAM STATUS....STS
  61. During engine start, when can the master switch be switched to ON?
    When all amber crosses and messages have dissapeared on the engine parameters (upper ECAM)
  62. What are the items for the PF before taxi?
    • - Nose light taxi
    • - Parking brake off
  63. What are the items for thre PNF after the FLT CTLS check during taxi?
    • - RADAR/ PWS.... On and 1/2 (2 switches)
    • - ATC....CHECK XPNDR
    • - AUTO BRAKE....MAX
    • - T/O CONFIG button....PRESS
    • - T/O MEMO....NO BLUE
  64. In case Engine anti ice will be used during takeoff, but is not calculated in the T/O performance calculations, What needs to be done to the perfomance factors?
    Subtract 5 degrees from the flex temp
  65. In case the QNH recuces, what needs to be done to the T/O performance?
    Subtract 1 degrees per 2hPa
  66. What is the approximate radar tilt for the wx radar for take off?
    +/- 4 UP
  67. What are the items for the PNF when lining up for departure?
    • - PACKS....OFF
    • - ENG ANTI ICE....A/R
    • - LIGHTS....ON (L-shape)
    • - BRAKE FANS....OFF
    • - TCAS....TA/RA
  68. When cleared to line up on the runway for deprature, what is the call from the PNF to the PF after completion of the before t/o cxlist?
    'Before takeoff checklist below the line complete, line up only'
  69. What is the response from the PF to the call from the PNF 'Before takeoff checklist below the line complete, line up only'
    'Line up only'
  70. When cleared for takeoff, what is the call from the PNF to the PF after completion of the before t/o cxlist?
    'Before takeoff checklist below the line cmplete, takeoff confirmed'
  71. What is the response from the PF to the call from the pnf 'Before takeoff checklist below the line cmplete, takeoff confirmed'
    'Checked, takeoff'
  72. During the takeoff roll, what is the pnf scanning?
    Airspeed, N1 and EGT
  73. When the PF calls for gear up, what are the items for the PNF?
    • - GEAR....UP
    • - 2 Outer lights....OFF
    • - GROUND SPOILERS....DISARM
  74. What is the call for the PNF when the PF calls 'Set Standard'
    'Standard Cross-checked, passing FL....now'
  75. What is the call for the PNF when the PF calls 'Set QNH....'
    'QNH cross-checked, passing ....feet now'
  76. When does engine anti ice have to be on?
    During all flight operation, when in icing conditions or anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40
  77. What is Vapp?
    Vls + 1/3 of head wind component (min 5/ max 15 kts)
  78. On what FL's are the fuel predictions to the alternate ariport based on?
    Fl220 of 310 (depending on distance)
  79. Down to 15000 ft, at which intervals should the radar tilt be adjusted?
    Every 10000 feet
  80. Below 15000ft, at which intervals should the radar tilt be adjusted?
    Every 5000ft
  81. What is the response for the PNF to the call from the PF 'Flaps 1'
    Speed checked, flaps 1 (set flaps 1), wind .../.. (read out wind from ND)
  82. If the terrain function is requiered during flight, which side shouls have what?
    Radar on PF, TERR ON ND on PNF side
  83. What are the stable approach criteria?
    • - Arircaft in landing config
    • - +10/-5 Kts target speed
    • - ROD less than 1000ft/min
    • - Within +/- 1 dot LOC or G/S
    • - Bank angle less than 15
  84. What are the actions for glideslope interception from above=
    • - APPR PB ON FCU....ENSURE PRESED
    • - V/S MODE....SELECT (1800FT/MIN)
    • - FCU ALT....SET (Above A/C alt, so not to engage Alt*)
  85. If the aircraft intercepts the glideslope from below 2000 above TDZE, when should you select flaps2?
    One dot below the glideslope
  86. What is eDA whith regards to the minimums?
    easyJet decision altitude= MDA+50
  87. an eDA should be regarded as what?
    MDA
  88. With regard to flight parameters, when should the PNF call 'SPEED'
    When airspeed deviates more than -5 kts or +10kts from target speed
  89. With regard to flight parameters, when should the PNF call 'SINK RATE'
    When V/S is >1000ft/minute
  90. With regard to flight parameters, when should the PNF call 'BANK'
    When the bank angle exceeds 7 degrees
  91. With regard to flight parameters, when should the PNF call 'Pitch'
    When the pitch attitude becomes lower than -2.5 pr greater than 10 degrees
  92. With regard to flight parameters, when should the PNF call 'Course'
    When deviation is greater than 1/2 dot (VOR) or 5 degrees (ADF)
  93. What are the ations when performing a normal go-around?
    • - PF call Go AROUND FLAPS
    • - PNF selects flaps 1 stage up
    • - PF performs rotation
    • - PF check & announce FMA (MAN TOGA/ SRS/ GA TRK)
    • - PNF annonces 'POSITIVE CLIMB'
    • - PF asks 'GEAR UP'
    • - SELECT NAV or HDG
    • - Radio Call 'GOING AROUND'
  94. What is the procedure for a go-around from intermediate approach altitude?
    • - Set the thrust levers to TOGA detent (engages go-around phase)
    • - Set thrust as requiered (CLB)
    • - Select applicable AP/FD and A/THR modes on FCU
  95. What are the actions for a discontinued approach?
    • - Push V/S
    • - Select Green dot speed
    • - If G/S is armed push APPR PB (disengages LOC and GS modes)
    • - Flaps?
    • - Gear up?
    • - PF uses V/S to achieve desired altitude
    • - Flap retraction on schedule
    • AT NO TIME THE THRUST LEVERS ARE MOVED TO THE TOGA DETENT
  96. What are the requiered conditions for One Engine Taxi?
    • - All hydraulic systems operate normally
    • - APU and APU GEN are operating normally and GEN1 is servicable
    • - Nosewheel steering and braking has been normal
    • - Cooling time of at leat three minutes at idle thrust
    • - Taxiways are not slippery or contaminated with snow or ice
  97. What are the actions for the pnf after landing?
    • - PACK2....A/R (OFF)
    • - Anti Ice....A/R
    • - APU....Start
    • - LIGHTS....A/R (L-shape, taxi light to taxi)
    • - RADAR....OFF
    • - PREDICTIVE WINDSHEAR....OFF
    • - ENG MODE SEL....NORM
    • - FLAPS....ZERO
    • - TRANSPONDER....XPNDR
    • - BRAKE TEMP...CHECK (BRAKE FANS?)
  98. What are the actions or the PNF when parking on stand?
    • - APU BLEED....ON
    • - TRANSPONDER....STBY/2000
    • - ELAPSED TIME....STOP
    • - CENTER TANK PUMPS....OFF
  99. What is the call for the memory items for an GPWS call?
    'PULL UP TOGA'
  100. What is the call for the memory items for an windshear warning?
    'WINDSHEAR TOGA'
  101. What is the call for the memory items for unreliable airspeed?
    'UNRELIABLE SPEED'
  102. What is the call for the memory items for a TCAS warning?
    'TCAS I HAVE CONTROL'
  103. What is the call for the memory items for an emergency descent?
    'EMERGENCY DESCENT'
  104. What is the call for the memory items for Loss of braking?
    'LOSS OF BRAKING'
  105. What is the call for the memory items for smoke or fumes in the cockpit?
    'SMOKE/ FUMES EMERGENCY PROCEDURE'
  106. What is the PA call to be made when the SCCM is requiered on the interphone urgently for preplanned emergency procedures and NITS brief?
    'SENIOR CABIN CREW MEMBER TO THE INTERPHONE'
  107. What is the PA call to be made when the SCCM is requiered on the flight deck urgently for preplanned emergency procedures and NITS brief?
    'SENIOT CABIN CREW MEMBER TO THE FLIGHTDECK'
  108. What is the PA call to be made when on the ground at any time and an emergency evacuation may be requiered?
    'ATTENTION. CREW AT STATIONS'
  109. What is the PA call to be made when severe turbulence is either encountered or expected and insufficient time is available for normal procedures?
    'CABIN CREW AND PASSENGERS BE SEATED IMMEDIATELY'
  110. What is the PA call to be made when the potential for an emergency evacuation no longer exists after an 'Attention, crew at stations' call?
    'CABIN CREW NORMAL OPERATIONS'
  111. What is the PA call to be made when having a slow decompression?
    'CABIN CREW, RETURN TO STATIONS. WE ARE COMMENCING A DESCENT. RETURN TO YOUR SEATS AND FASTEN YOUR SEATBELTS'
  112. What is the PA call to be made when passing 2000ft in the descent for a planned emergency landing?
    'CABIN CREW, TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS'
  113. What is the PA call to be made when at 500ft in the descent for a planned emergency landing?
    'BRACE BRACE'
  114. What is the PA call to be made when an unplanned emergency landing i imminent?
    'ATTENTION CREW BRACE BRACE'
  115. What is the PA call to be made when an emergency evacuation is requiered?
    'EVACUAT, UNFASTEM YOUR SEAT BELTS AND GET OUT'
  116. What is the call to ground when ready for pushback and clearence received from ATC?
    'GROUND FROM COCKPIT, CLEARED FOR PUSH, BRAKES SET'
  117. What is the call to ground when ready to disconnect?
    'CLEAR TO DISCONNECT, HAND SIGNALS ON LEFT/RIGHT'
  118. What is the definition of steeper angle approaches?
    Approaches with a flight path angle of between more than 3.5 degrees and less than 4.5 degrees
  119. What kind of approach is requiered when the approach angle is steeper than 3.5 degrees?
    A stabilized approach
  120. When is a one engine taxi out prohibited?
    • - Taxi surface is slippery
    • - LVO as advertised by the ATIS
    • - Engines are 'cold'
    • - APU and APU GEN are inop
    • - defects affecting the hydraulic, electric redundancy or steering or braking capability
  121. What does DODAR stand for?
    • D = Diagnose
    • O = Options
    • D = Decide
    • A = Assign tasks and action
    • R = Review decision
  122. What does NITS stand for?
    • N = Nature of situation
    • I = Intentions
    • T = Time available
    • S = Special instructions
  123. What information should be in the initial call to the first enroute ATS (air Traffic Service) unit?
    • - Callsign
    • - SID
    • - Current or passing level
    • - Initial climb level
Author
Anonymous
ID
125450
Card Set
SOPS EOMB.txt
Description
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Updated

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