1. 1) What type of examination is a comprehensive hard and soft tissue examination routinely done with study models?
    (D) Type 1
  2. 2) The Naval Reserve Type 1 or Type 2 dental examination should be performed at a minimum of what event or time period?
    (A) With any required physical examination
  3. 3) A nonmetallic permanent restoration is annotated by drawing an outline of the restoration showing size, location, shape, and inscribing vertical lines within the outline.
    (A) False
  4. 4) All active duty members and reservists should have medical examinations at which of the following events or intervals?
    • (A) Upon entry to enlisted or commissioned active duty
    • (C) Every 5 years through age 50
    • (D) Annually after age 60
  5. 5) Which of the following personnel may perform a type 4 dental screening evaluation?
    • (A) A dental hygienist
    • (C) A qualified dental assistant
    • (D) A dental officer
  6. 6) Which of the following conditions should be annotated in pencil in box 1 of the Current Status form?
    • (A) Carious lesions
    • (B) Periradicular lesions
    • (C) Indications for root canal treatment
  7. 7) Nonmetallic restorations are made of which of the following types of materials?
    • (A) Glass Ionomer
    • (C) Fissure sealant
    • (D) Acrylic resin
  8. 8) Where in the occlusion section of the Forensic Examination Form should you document and record any other occlusal condition not listed?
    (C) Remarks
  9. 9) The Remarks section of the Forensic Dental Examination form is used to differentiate between which of the following types of dental materials?
    • (A) Composites
    • (C) Temporaries
    • (D) Sealants
  10. 10) When recording the use of copal varnish in the dental treatment record, which of the following abbreviations should you use?
    (C) Cop
  11. 11) What dental classification indicates that the patient's dental condition, if not treated or followed up, could have the potential, but is not expected to, result in dental emergencies within the next 12 months?
    (C) Class 2
  12. 12) What is the primary purpose for conducting annual dental examinations?
    (B) To access the readiness status of active duty personnel
  13. 13) What method, if any, should you use to indicate the materials used for existing restorations annotated in box 2 of the Current Status form?
    (B) None; there are not any remarks made to indicate materials used
  14. 14) What procedure should you use when a patient requires the completion of a new Current Status form?
    (C) Transfer the information from the previous forms to the new Current Status form
  15. 15) The formulation, supervision, and execution of the Preventive Dentistry Program is found in what SECNAV instruction?
    (B) 6600.5
  16. 16) Which of the following non-pathologic findings should you annotate in the Hard Tissue Remarks section of the Forensic Examination form?
    • (A) Intrinsic staining
    • (C) Rotated teeth
    • (D) Tori
  17. 17) Which of the following dental instruments and/or materials should be included in a basic dental examination instrument setup?
    (A) A periodontal probe and cotton forceps
  18. 18) What does an even line drawn on the root of the tooth indicate?
    (A) Resorption of the root
  19. 19) When seating the patient for a dental exam, where should you position the dental light to avoid shining the light in the patient's eyes?
    (A) Beneath the patient's chin
  20. 20) Which of the following procedures is one of the basic professional services provided on an annual basis to sailors by the Navy dental team?
    (D) Dental examinations
  21. 21) What procedure should you use to chart the presence of supernumerary teeth?
    (B) Both insert an "S" in the location on the tooth number line and an outline of the tooth in its approximate location
  22. 22) What number of Angle classifications could be used on the Forensic Examination form?
    (A) Three
  23. 23) You should be able to chart the information for the SF-88 by using what box of the Current Status form?
    • (A) 1
    • (B) 2
  24. 24) Pencil entries are authorized for use in box 2 of the Current Status form.
    (A) False
  25. 25) The back of the EZ 603 Form may be overprinted with a command specific format.
    (B) True
  26. 26) Which part of the S.O.A.P includes the patient's treatment needs?
    (B) Plan
  27. 27) When charting the top section of the Forensic Examination form, what symbol should you use to indicate missing teeth or teeth not visible in the patient's mouth?
    (A) X
  28. 28) When charting a Forensic Examination form, what method, if any, should you use to describe the differences between gold and chrome alloy restorations?
    (D) Indicate in the "Remarks" section that the restoration is chrome alloy
  29. 29) When patients complete their dental examination, you should direct them to make future dental appointments at which of the following departments?
    (D) Front desk
  30. 30) What new dental form provides a record of initial accession exam and all subsequent periodic, annual, recall, and separation exams?
    (C) EZ 603
  31. 31) The Forensic Dental Examination form is completed using black ink.
    (B) True
  32. 32) Which section on the Consultation Sheet should you leave blank for the person receiving the form to document his or her findings?
    (A) Consultation report
  33. 33) What form should you use to document the findings of a dental examination for overseas screening?
    (A) NAVMED 1300/1
  34. 34) When identifying and locating caries or existing restorations, how should you refer to an 8-MID designation?
    (A) Mesial, incisal, distal aspects of a right maxillary central incisor
  35. 35) What color ink should you use for the medical alert entry on the EZ 603 a Form?
    (D) Red
  36. 36) Voluntary Training Unit personnel or Selected Reserve personnel could require which of the following forms to be completed in conjunction with their Type 1 or Type 2 dental exam?
    (A) NAVMED 6600/12
  37. 37) Which of the following entries should you annotate in the space marked "Remarks and Additional Dental Defects and Diseases" on the report of the Medical Examination form?
    • (A) Type of dental exam
    • (C) Qualified "YES" or "NO"
    • (D) Dental classification
  38. 38) The dental chair should be placed in which of the following positions to dismiss the patient?
    (C) Arm raised, lowest, upright position
  39. 39) Which of the following forms should you use to document dental treatment completed from the treatment plan, dental emergencies, and any other narrative dental findings?
    (D) EZ 603A
  40. 40) The same charting symbols are used in boxes 1 and 2 on the Current Status form.
    (A) False
  41. 41) What abbreviations should you use when recording that the patient was informed of examination findings and treatment plan?
    (D) PTINF
  42. 42) Dental examinations are classified by what total number of examination types?
    (B) Four
  43. 43) When charting, how should you indicate that gold material was used in a fixed partial denture (FPD)?
    (A) Inscribe diagonal parallel lines
  44. 44) What part of the S.O.A.P includes the reason for the visit and a statement of the chief complaint?
    (D) Subjective
  45. 45) On the Forensic Examination form, what method should you use to indicate that a patient does NOT have a sift tissue condition?
    (B) Leave blank if a condition does not exist
  46. 46) Which of the following references should you use to complete the Dental Examination form?
    (D) MANMED, Chapter 6
  47. 47) What part of the S.O.A.P includes the health questionnaire review findings?
    (B) Objective
  48. 48) A member's commanding officer can approve a member for overseas assignment even when the dental officer recommends disapproval.
    (A) True
  49. 49) What form should you use to refer a patient to another specialist or to medical for further evaluation or treatment?
    (C) SF 513
  50. 50) Which of the following terms is often used when referring to a double occlusal restoration?
    (C) Snake eyes
Card Set
Dental Examinations