ITIL_Practice

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?




    A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
  2. What is a RACI model used for?

    A. Defining roles and responsibilities
    B. Monitoring services
    C. Performance analysis
    D. Recording Configuration Items
    uestion>

    A. Defining roles and responsibilities
  3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?




    Databases (CMDB)
    D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
    A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
  4. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
    the?




    C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
  5. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?




    A. Service Design
  6. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

    A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them
    B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
    technical or supervisory roles
    C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
    are low and this helps to minimise salaries
    D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
    effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
    B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
  7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?




    D. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
  8. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?




    D. Resources and Capabilities
  9. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?




    B. The design of Market Spaces
  10. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
    B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
    C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
    Portfolio
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
  11. Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?




    A. Supplier Manager
  12. A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?




    C. The contract is being negotiated
  13. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?




    C. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
  14. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?




    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
  15. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?




    A. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
  16. 1.The only phase of the Service Management: Lifecycle where value can be mesured is Service Operation
    2.All the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT service

    Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process?




    A. 1 only
  17. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

    A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
    skilltominimise the cost of training them
    B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
    effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
    C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
    technical or supervisory roles
    D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
    are low and this helps to minimise salaries
    C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
  18. Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

    1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
    2. What services to offer and to whom?
    3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?



    D. All of the above
  19. Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?




    B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
  20. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

    A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
    B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
    implement Continual Improvement
    C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
    to implement Continual Improvement
    D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
    D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
  21. Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did
    we get there?"




    D. Service Operation
  22. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?

    1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
    2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
    3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place



    A. 1 and 3 only
  23. Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

    A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;
    Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
    B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
    Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
    C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
    Manager
    D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
    Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
    B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;Configuration Analyst;Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
  24. In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
    It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:




    D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
  25. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?




    A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
  26. The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?




    C. Business Value
  27. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?




    C. Whether to buy an application or build it
  28. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?




    D. Customer / Business Needs
  29. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?




    D. Customer / Business Needs
  30. Service Acceptance criteria are used to?




    A. Ensure delivery and support of a service
  31. Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?




    D. Facilities Management
  32. Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?

    1. Local Service Desk
    2. Virtual Service Desk
    3. IT Help Desk
    4. Follow the Sun



    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  33. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?




    B. Functions and Processes
  34. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?




    A. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
  35. Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?




    D. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
  36. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?




    C. Service Level Management
  37. What are the three Service Provider business models?




    B. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
  38. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?




    C. Wisdom
  39. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?




    A. Requestfulfilment
  40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
    Operation
    2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services



    C. 2 only
  41. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?




    B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
  42. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

    A. Overall business risk is optimised
    B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
    Changes
    C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
    D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
    Management system
    C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
  43. How does Problem Management work with Change Management?




    C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
  44. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?




    D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
  45. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?




    B. Demand Management
  46. Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?




    D. Provide training and certification in project management.
  47. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

    A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
    B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
    Service
    C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
    occurred
    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
  48. The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?




    D. The design and development of services and service management processes
  49. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

    A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
    B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
    to implement Continual Improvement
    C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
    D. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
    implement Continual Improvement
    C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
  50. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?



    A. Requestfulfilment
  51. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?




    A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
  52. Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?




    A. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
  53. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

    1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
    2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function



    B. 1 only
  54. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?




    D. Resources and Capabilities
  55. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?




    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
  56. What is the definition of an Alert?




    A. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
  57. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?

    A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
    and software media)
    B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined
    approval and qualification process exists
    C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
    D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
    procedure for obtaining them
    C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
  58. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?




    C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
  59. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?




    C. Wisdom
  60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?



    B. A method of structuring an organization
  61. Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?




    C. Supplier Manager
  62. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
    B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
    Portfolio
    C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
  63. The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?

    A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
    B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
    effectiveness
    C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
    metrics include availability and capacity
    D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
    measure the infrastructure
    A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
  64. The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?

    A. Units oforganisations with roles to perform certain activities
    B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
    services
    C. The management of functions withinanorganisation to perform certain activities
    D. A setofspecialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of
    services
    B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
  65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?




    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
  66. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?




    B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
  67. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?




    A. Capacity Management
  68. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?




    B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
  69. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
    the?




    B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
  70. What is a RACI model used for?




    D. Defining roles and responsibilities
  71. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?




    A. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
  72. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?




    C. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
  73. What are the three Service Provider business models?




    D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
  74. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?




    D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
  75. A Service Level Agreement is?




    B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
  76. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?




    B. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
  77. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?




    C. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
  78. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?




    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
  79. Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

    1. Service Portfolio design
    2. Value Creation Trhough Service
    3. Service V model
    4. Plan Do Check Act Model






    A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
    B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
    C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
    D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
    A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
  80. Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?




    B. Extreme internal focus
  81. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?




    C. Define what you should measure
  82. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
    architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
    requirements of the organisation
    C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
    A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
  83. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?




    D. Service Design
  84. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?




    B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
  85. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?




    A. Capacity Management
  86. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

    A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
    B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
    C. A secure library where definitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
    protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
    stored and protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
  87. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?




    D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
  88. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?




    C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
  89. Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?




    A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
  90. What is a RACI model used for?




    B. Defining roles and responsibilities
  91. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?




    B. Define what you should measure
  92. What is the definition of an Alert?




    D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
  93. Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?

    A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk
    activity
    B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff
    manage infrastructure devices not services
    C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a
    service has been disrupted
    D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal
    service. This includes technical staff
    B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services
  94. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?




    A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
  95. In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome
    be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?

    A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
    B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability
    C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be
    made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
    D. It is possible that responsiveness may sufferandcustomers needs may not be met within business timescales
    D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales
  96. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?




    C. Wisdom
  97. Major Incidents require?




    C. Separate procedures
  98. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?




    A. The design of Market Spaces
  99. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?




    B. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business
  100. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

    A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
    B. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
    protected
    C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
    D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
    stored and protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
  101. Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?




    C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
  102. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
    architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organiation
    B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
  103. Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?




    B. Facilities Management
  104. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?




    C. Excessive focus on cost
  105. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?




    B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
  106. What is the definition of an Alert?




    D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
  107. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
    the following?




    D. Functions and Processes
  108. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?




    B. Service Level Management
  109. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?




    D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
  110. How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?



    D. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
  111. Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?




    B. Performance Management
  112. In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:




    A. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
  113. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?




    D. Whether to buy an application or build it
  114. Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

    1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
    2. What services to offer and to whom?
    3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?




    C. All of the above
  115. Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?




    B. Access Management
  116. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

    A. Delivers specific results
    B. A method of structuring an organization C. Responds to specific events
    D. It is measurable
    B. A method of structuring an organization
  117. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?




    D. Resources and Capabilities
  118. Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
    services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?



    D. Extreme internal focus
  119. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?




    D. A method of structuring an organization
  120. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?




    B. IT Operations Management
  121. Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?




    A. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
  122. Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?




    C. Process design
  123. Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?




    B. Service Level Management
  124. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?




    A. Technical Management
  125. Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?




    B. The Service Owner
  126. The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement (OLA) is that:




    D. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
  127. Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?




    C. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
  128. Which of the following best describes a Service Request?




    C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting
  129. Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply



    C. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
  130. What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?




    A. Informational, Warning, Exception
  131. Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?




    C. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
  132. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?




    D. Supplier Management
  133. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?




    B. Continual Service Improvement
  134. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?




    D. RequestFulfilment
  135. Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?




    B. Service Design Package
  136. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?




    A. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
  137. Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

    1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
    2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience



    C. Both of the above
  138. Access Management is closely related to which other processes?




    A. Information Security Management and Availability Management
  139. Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?




    C. Problem Management
  140. Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?




    C. Corporate, Customer, Service
  141. Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?

    A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
    Continually Improve
    B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly imlemented;Improve the solution
    D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
  142. Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

    1. Monitor, Measure and Review
    2. Continual Improvement
    3. Implement Initiatives
    4. Plan for Improvement




    B. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
  143. A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
    has been found. Is this a valid approach?




    B. Yes
  144. Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of
    ITIL?




    D. Holistic
  145. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?




    B. The value of a service
  146. Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
    People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?




    D. Products
  147. Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision?




    A. Where do we want to be?
  148. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
    1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
    2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
    3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
    goals




    B. All of the above
  149. In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?



    A. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents
  150. Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?




    D. Service Transition
  151. Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?




    B. The Business
  152. Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process




    B. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
  153. Hierarchic escalation is best described as?




    satisfaction
    D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
    A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
  154. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?




    B. To restore service to a user
  155. There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
    1. Progress
    2. Effectiveness
    3. Efficiency
    4. ?




    B. Compliance
  156. The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
    called:




    C. A Service Design Package
  157. Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?




    A. Configuration Management System (CMS)
  158. You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?




    D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
  159. Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management

    1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
    2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
    3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
    4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in




    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  160. What is the objective of Access Management?




    B. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
  161. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?




    B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
  162. Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

    1. Known Error Data
    2. Change Schedules
    3. Service Knowledge Management System
    4. The output from monitoring tools




    D. All of the above
  163. Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
    Management?




    D. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
  164. "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
    of which part of the Service Lifecycle?




    D. Service Transition
  165. Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
    CORRECT?

    1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
    2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
    and the right level of control




    C. Both of the above
  166. Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
    CORRECT?
    A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development
    B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
    information about services which are being considered for future development
    C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
    C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
  167. Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:




    D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
  168. A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
    1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
    2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
    Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?




    D. Neither of the above
  169. Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:




    D. Services and Components
  170. Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?




    C. Service Operation
  171. Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?




    D. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
  172. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? The Service Owner:

    A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
    B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service
    they own
    C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service theyown
    D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
    A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
  173. Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?




    B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
  174. The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
    Service Lifecycle?




    C. Service Strategy
  175. What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?




    A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
  176. Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?




    B. IT Operations Management
  177. Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?




    C. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
  178. Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?




    C. Access Management
  179. A risk is:




    B. Something that might happen
  180. What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
    known as?




    C. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
  181. A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
    expected of them?




    A. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
  182. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
    impact?




    D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
  183. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?

    A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
    that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
    B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
    assets and service components that are compatible with each other
    C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
    and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
    D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
    A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
  184. Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

    1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage
    services at agreed levels to the business
    2. The successful release of services into the live environment



    A. 1 only
  185. Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?




    D. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
  186. Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
    (CIs)?

    1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
    2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
    3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
    4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade




    B. All of the above
  187. What does a service always deliver to customers?




    A. Value
  188. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

    1. Data mining and workflow tools
    2. Measurement and reporting systems
    3. Release and deployment technology
    4. Process Design




    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  189. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?




    C. The end to end service
  190. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
    (SLA)?




    B. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
  191. Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?

    1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
    2. A process should be documented




    C. Both of the above
  192. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?




    B. The Service Owner
  193. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

    1. Risk assessment
    2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
    3. Monitoring of component availability




    B. 1 and 2 only
  194. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?

    A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
    B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
    locations are in one place
    C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
  195. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:

    1. What is the vision?
    2. Where are we now?
    3. Where do we want to be?
    4. How do we get there?
    5. Did we get there?
    6. ?




    B. How do we keep the momentum going?
  196. Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?




    C. Remediation Planning
  197. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?




    B. To provide training and certification in project management
  198. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?




    D. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
  199. Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?




    A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
  200. Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?

    A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
    B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of
    service to customers
    C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
    D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
    overal management of the IT Infrastructure
    • D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
    • overal management of the IT Infrastructure
  201. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:

    1: Design of the service technology
    2: Business continuity strategy
    3: Business Impact Analysis
    4: Risk assessment




    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
  202. Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?

    A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
    activities
    B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident
    C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
    D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
    A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities
  203. Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?

    1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
    2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
    3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
    4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers




    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  204. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
    to the agreed and documented process?




    D. The Process Owner
  205. When should tests for a new service be designed?




    A. At the same time as the service is designed
  206. Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

    A. Service Design: Design the processes
    B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
    D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management
    A. Service Design: Design the processes
  207. Reliability is a measure of:




    D. How long a service or component can perform its function with out failing
  208. What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?



    D. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
  209. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?




    A. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
  210. As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?

    1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
    2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
    3. An external service provider




    A. All of the above
  211. What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

    A. Rapid, one-off improvement
    B. Return on investment within 12 months C. Quick wins
    D. Steady, ongoing improvement
    D. Steady, ongoing improvement
  212. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:




    A. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
  213. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?




    B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
  214. What is the Service Pipeline?




    D. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
  215. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management
    has been established
    B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
    should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
    C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established
    at the same time
    D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
    provider
    B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
  216. Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?




    A. The Service Knowledge Management System
  217. Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?




    B. The Problem Record
  218. What are Request Models used for?

    A. Capacity Management
    B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
    C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as
    local or remote
    D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
    D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
  219. Consider the following list:

    1. Change Authority
    2. Change Manager
    3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

    What are these BEST described as?




    C. Roles, people or groups
  220. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?




    A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
  221. In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution?




    C. Service value is actually seen by customers
  222. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:




    D. A Release Package
  223. Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?




    C. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
  224. Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
    Operation to perform?

    1. Communication between Data Centre shifts
    2. Communication related to changes
    3. Performance reporting
    4. Routine operational communication




    D. All of the above
  225. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?




    C. Continual Service Improvement
  226. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?




    C. All incidents must be fully logged
  227. In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is underpinned by which set of activities?




    D. Service and process improvements
  228. Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?




    B. The Supplier Manager
  229. Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?




    C. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
  230. Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?




    D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
  231. Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?




    C. Demand Management
  232. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?




    C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
  233. Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?




    A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
  234. The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?




    A. The utility of a service
  235. What are the two major processes in Problem Management?




    C. Proactive and Reactive
  236. Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?




    D. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change
  237. Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?




    A. The Information Security Manager
  238. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?




    B. Service Strategy
  239. Identify the input to the Problem Management process




    B. Incident Records
  240. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?




    D. Early Life Support
  241. The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?




    B. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.
  242. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?




    A. The value of a service
  243. Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?




    A. Capacity Management
  244. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:

    1. The services
    2. The architectures
    3. The configuration items
    4. The processes




    D. All of the above
  245. Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these Four Ps?




    B. People, Process, Products, Partners
  246. With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?




    D. Incident Management
  247. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?




    D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
  248. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?




    D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
  249. Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?




    A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
  250. What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?




    A. Configuration Baseline
  251. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?




    C. The Service Provider
  252. Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?
    1. Things that were done correctly
    2. Those things that were done incorrectly
    3. How to prevent recurrence
    4. What could be done better in the future



    D. All of the above
  253. What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items(Cls) are stored and protected?




    A. Definitive Media Library
  254. Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?




    D. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
  255. Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?




    C. Service Operation
  256. Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
    1. Architectures
    2. Technology
    3. Service Management processes
    4. Metrics




    D. All of the above
  257. Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?




    C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
  258. Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?




    B. Configuration Model
  259. The BEST processes to automate are those that are:




    A. Simple and well understood
  260. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
    1. Risk assessment
    2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
    3. Monitoring of component availability




    B. 1 and 2 only
  261. What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?




    D. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
  262. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?




    B. Only one - the process owner
  263. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?




    C. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
  264. Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
    1. Roles
    2. Activities
    3. Functions
    4. Responsibilities




    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
  265. The Supplier Management process includes:
    1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service
    requirements
    2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
    3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business




    C. All of the above
  266. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?



    C. Service Design
  267. Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be
    easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?




    D. Categorization
  268. Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
    1. Local Service Desk
    2. Virtual Service Desk
    3. IT Help Desk
    4. Follow the Sun




    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
  269. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?




    A. Technology, process and service
  270. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?




    D. Utility and Warranty
  271. Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?




    D. Do
  272. A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
    1. Documenting the process
    2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
    3. Improving the process
    4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required train




    B. All of the above
  273. In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:




    A. Services, technology and tools
  274. Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

    A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
    Management
    B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
    Management
    C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
    Management
    D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
    RequestFulfilment
    • A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
    • Management
  275. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
    efficient use of:




    C. People, Process, Products, Partners
  276. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?




    D. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
  277. Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?




    A. RequestFulfilment
  278. Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes?




    B. Plan
Author
desi3374
ID
124451
Card Set
ITIL_Practice
Description
ITIL Foundation v.3 Practice
Updated