Positioning final quiz (1).txt

    • author "John Capiral"
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    • fileName "Positioning final quiz"
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    • Which of the following strucdtures is not part of the proximal humerus?
    • A. Lesser tuberle
    • B. Glenoid process
    • C. Intertubecular groove
    • D. Anatomic neck
    • B. Glenoid process
  1. True or False: The central ray location for the AP projectio nshoulder is perpendicular, 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process (3/4 inferior to the lateral protion of the moer readily palpated clavicle )
    True
  2. Which of the following joints is considered to have a speroidal type of movement?



    D. Scapulohumeral joint
  3. Which of the following projectiosn should be performed using a breathing technique?
    A. Scapulay Ylateral projection
    B. Transthorasic lateral
    B. AP projection - internal rotation
    D. Ap projection - external rotation
    B. Tranthorasic lateral
  4. Which rotation of the huerus will result in an AP position/projection of the proximal humerus?



    C. External rotation (epicondyles parralel to image receptor )
  5. Where is the CR centered for a transhtorasic lateral projetion?



    C. Level of surgical neck
  6. Which of the followng dmonstrats the greater tuberle in profile laterally?



    A. External rotation
  7. Which of the following arm positions demosntrate the lesser tubercle in profile mediallly?



    B. Internal rotation
  8. What are the most common routine positiosn for the non-trauma shoulder?



    D. Ap internal and external
  9. Whay are the most common routine positions for the trauma shoulder?



    B. Scaspular y and ap neeutral
  10. Proper positioning for the forearm for an ap projeciton require sthe hand to be...



    B. Supinated
  11. Positionibg instrutures for the latera projection of he orearm include...
    - humerus and forearm form at 90 degree
    - Cr to be directed to mid foreamr area
    - hand o be lateral




    C. 1 2 and 3
  12. Which of the following will best demosntrate the carpal scaphoid (navicular)?



    B. Ulnar flexion
  13. What is the tube nagle for the PA scaphoid with cr angle and ulnar deviaion?



    B. 10-15 degrees proximally
  14. What carpal bone lies between the lunate and the pisiform?



    A. Triquetrum
  15. What are the routine positions for the wrist?



    B. PA, oblique and lateral
  16. What special/optional position best demonstrates the carpal interspaces?



    B. Ap
  17. What carpal bone articuales iwth teh 1st metacarpal



    A. Trapezium
  18. There are ______separate bones in the adult system



    D. 206 bones
  19. The metacarpals and pahalanges are classified as ________________bones



    A. Long
  20. True or false: Epiphyseal plate are found between the diaphysis and each epiphysis until sekeletal growth is complete.
    True
  21. Which of the followign refer ot aj oint that is freely moveabl?



    D. Diarthrosis
  22. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?



    B. Sternum
  23. Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?



    D. Carpal
  24. Examples of flat bones are the :



    B. Clavaria, ribs, scapulae and sternum
  25. Whicho f the following refer to a joint with limited movement?



    B. Synarthrosis
  26. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?



    A. Skull
  27. Which of the following refers to a joint with no movement



    C. Synathrosis
  28. Which of the ollowing bones iscalssified as an irregualr bone?



    B. Vertebrae
  29. Which type of ossification occurs when the bone replaces catilage?



    A. Endochhondral
  30. Which is not true concefring sesamoid bones?



    D. All sesamoid bone sare countesd as part of the appendicular skeleton
  31. Which type of ossifiction occurs hwen bone replaes membranes?



    C. Intramembranous
  32. True or False: The primary center of ossification in growing bones is called the diaphysis
    True
  33. Whichc of the following bones it nit part off the appendicula skeleton?



    B. Ribs
  34. Which term describes a position with the whole bodu tilted so that hte head is lower thant he feet?



    B. Transdelenburg
  35. A mdio lateral proejction is hwere hte lateral aspect of htet anatomical part is closest to iamge receptor
    True or False:
    True
  36. A patient is lyng on her back on the x-ray table. Teh right side of her body is turned 45 degrees away the imag ereceptor. Whati s this position?
    A. LPO
    B. RPO
    C> RAO
    D. LAO
    A.LPO
  37. Which of th efollowing terms decribe sthe anterio aspect of the foot



    D. Dorsum
  38. A vertebrae is an exmaple of a...



    D. Irregular bone
  39. A longitudinl plane that divides teh body into anterio and posterior parts is the...



    C. Coronal plane
  40. Which term desribes lying down in any position?



    B. Recumbent
  41. Patient is lying on her stomach facing the x-ray table. The right side of her body is turned up 45 degees asay from teh imag e receptor with her right elbow nad knee bent. What is this readiggraphic position?



    C. Lao
  42. Patient is lying on her left side. The x-ray tube is horiontally directed with teh cr entering the posterior surface of her body. The IRis adjacanet to the anterior surface of her ody. What is the radiographic examination



    A. Left lateral deubitus
  43. What is the name for the structure tha tserves as al id over tha layrni to pervent aspriationf of food or fluid?
    A uvula
    B. Epiglottis
    C. Hyoid bone
    D. Orphayrnx
    B. Epiglottis
  44. The are aof the lung that lies above the clavicle is termed the :



    A. Apex
  45. Which type of bod habitus requres that the image reeptor be placed crosswise ratehr than lengthwise for a PA chest?



    D. Hypersthenic
  46. A pa chest radiograph reveals that 8ribs are seen above the diapgrahm. Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of lungs?



    C. Take exposure on the second inspriation rather than on first
  47. Of the followign fators, whicih one must be applied o demosntrate possible air and fluid levels in the hest



    A. Patien in erect position
  48. Of the following actions, which one will remove the scapulae from the lung fields?



    C. Roll shoulders forward
  49. What approproiate SID is used with a PA and laeteal erect radiograph?



    D. 72 inches
  50. A correvtly positioned lateral chest raidograph demosntartes some saparation of hte posteriro ribsdue to the diverrgent x-ray beam. A separation of more than ______indicates objeitionable rotation from a true lateral



    C. 1 cm
  51. The CRfor an AP supine chest should be?



    B. Centered to leve of T7
  52. Situtation:a patien is in the intesnive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending physician si concerened about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient ahd surgery recently and cannot be plaed in teh eret position. What position woul be best to rule out of the pleural effusion (fluid)?



    B. Left lateral decubitis
  53. The two most important land marks for locating central ray for the chest positioning are..



    D. Jugular notch and vetebra prominens
  54. Which of the followign factors ust be applied ot minimized magnificatio nof the heart?



    A. 72 sid
  55. A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor. The CRenters the right side of the body what is this radiographic position?



    D. Left lateral
  56. The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the?



    D. Visceral pleura
  57. Rotation on a PA chest radigraph is determined by exainin?
    A posterior ribs
    B. The diaphragm
    C. Sternal ends of the clavicles
    D. The inferior angle of the scapula
    C. The sternal ends of the clavicles
  58. Patient comes to radiolgoy with possible mass benateh the right clavicle. The pa and left lateral projectiosn are nconclusive. Whih additional proejction can be taken to demosntarte this possible mass?



    D. Apical lordotic
  59. Which of the followng solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?



    A. Liver
  60. Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left?



    B. Precense of the liver
  61. In which of the four major quadrant of the abdomen would the cecum be found?



    A. Right lower
  62. What is the best method to control volunatry motion during abdoinal radiography?



    B. Careful isntructions to patient
  63. Which of the following structures should be visualized on a properly exposed ap supine abdomen (kub)adigraph on a small to average sze patient?



    A. Psoas muscle
  64. What type of respiration should be used for abdominal radiography?



    D. Expiration
  65. To ensure or double check that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a kub radiograph, the technologist should palaplate the...



    A. Greater trochanter to locate symphysis pubis
  66. The gonadal dose for a pa projection of the abdomen of a female patient is greater than the dose used for an ap proejction
    True or False
    True
  67. At what level shoul the cr be placed for an AP lateral decbius projection of the abdomen?



    C. 2 inches ( 5 cm )above illiac crest
  68. Which of the folowing kv ranges ire recommended for a kub on an adult



    C. 70 - 80
  69. A patient is in ICu fter abdominal surgeyr. The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient cant stand or sit. Which of the following possitions will best demosnstrate any possible intra-abdominal free ir?



    A. Left lateral decubitus
  70. What cr centering sohuld be used for a dorsa decubitus projection of the abdomen?


    B. 2 inches (5 cm )above illiac crest
  71. To ensure the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be placed at the level of the...



    D. Axilla
  72. Patient comes to radilogy with a clinica lhistory of a possible abdominl aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdomnal proejction would best demosntrate this condition



    B. Dorsal decubitus
  73. A dorsal decubitus abdemon is ordered on a patient. The patient is placed on his back o na cart. The cr will enter hte left side o the aptient with the patients right side gainst hte image receptr. What tpye of marker should be used?



    C. Right
  74. What are the routine position projections for the humerus?



    D. Ap and lateral
  75. Which basic prection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile and the fat pads of the elbow



    D lateral rotaiton
    C. Lateral
  76. Which of the following sterucutres is considered to be most distal?



    C. Ulnar head
  77. Which of the following is not treu about the elbow joint?



    C. The elbow joint is synathrodial
  78. Which structures from the proximal radioulnar joint?



    A. Radial notch and radial head
  79. What two bon land marks are palpate dforpositioning of the elbow



    B. Humeral epicodnyles
  80. What is the purpose of performing the partially flexed projections of the elbow?



    C. Provide an ap perspective if patient cannot fullt extend elbow
  81. Whcih routine prejcito nof the elbow best demosntrates the radia head and neck free of super imposition



    C. External oblique
  82. How should the humeral epicondyles be positioned for a lateral proejction fo the elbow
    A. Parallel to image reeptor
    B. Perpendicular to iamge receptor
    C. 45 degrees to image receptor
    D. 30 degrees ot image receptor
    B. Perpendicular to image receptor
  83. Which one fo the following structures is not part of the ulna?



    C. Ulnar neck
  84. With the radial head projections, what is the only difference between the four projections



    C. The position of the hands and the wrist
  85. Which of the following best demmosntrates the radial head using hte trauma lateral coyle method routine?



    A. Elbowe flexed 90 degrees, cr angled 30 degrees towards shoulder
  86. Which one of the followign statements is not true about a lateral proejction of the humerus for an adult?



    D. Place epicondyles parallel to IR
  87. A young boy comes to radiology with an elbow injury. The basi proejcts demosntrate a possible nondisplaced facture of the coronoid processs. Beyong oblique projeciton, what additional projections can be performed to demosntrate the coronoid free of super impositions?



    A. Coyle method wit h45 degreee angle away from shoulder
  88. The suprasternal, manubrial, jugular notch al correspond to the levle of:



    B. T2-3
  89. Which of the following structures connects the posterior aspect of the ribs to the body of the vertebrea?



    B. Costrovertebral joints
  90. True or False: The tubervle portion fo a typical rib connects the posterior end of the rib to the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae.
    True
  91. Which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at hte level of teh sternal angle?



    C. Second
  92. In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of at ypical rib is higher or more superior to the anterior portion



    A. 3 - 5 inches
  93. The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of:



    C. 8th and 9th rib
  94. What is the name of hte rib that articuates with the thorasic vetebral body
    A. Neck
    B. Tubercles
    C. Head
    D. Facets
    C head
  95. Why is the RAOsternum prefered to the LAO position?



    C. The rao projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart
  96. Which of the following positions will best demosntrate the axillary portion fo the right ribs?



    B. Rpo
  97. What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an rao projection of the sternum for an hypersthenic type patient?



    A. 15 degrees
  98. What is the recommended sid for the rao sternum position



    D. 40 inches
  99. Which two projetions mustb e taken for an injury to he left posterior upper ribs



    C. Ap and lpo
  100. Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib?



    C. Ninth
  101. What is the joitn classification and type of movement for teh sternocclavicular joints?



    D. Synovial with diarthrodial movement
  102. Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?



    B. Pa and lao
  103. A radiograph of an rao sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to elminate this problem during the repeat exposure?



    B. Increase obliquity of the body
  104. List the three parts of the sternum
    • - Manubrium
    • - Body
    • - Xiphoid
  105. What border is lcoated on the lateral aspect of the scapula?



    B. Axillary border
  106. What is another name for the lateral angle of the scapula?



    B. Head
  107. What of the following joint is considered to have a gliding or plane type of movement?



    A. Acromiclavicular joints
  108. Which of the folloing projectiosn can be performed using a breathing technique?



    D. Ap scapula
  109. Where is the cr centered for an ap of the clavicle?



    C. Mid body or shaaft of the clavicle
  110. What angle of th scapula is located between the lateral and medial border


    C. Inferior angle
  111. What are the most common routines for the clavicle?


    C. Ap and ap axial
  112. What ar ethe mmost common routines for positions for the scapula?


    C. Ap and lateral
  113. What are the most ocmmon rutine positions for the ac joints?



    D. Ap bilateral with and without weights.
  114. Which term describes the lateral end of the clavicle?



    D. Acromial extremity
  115. Where is the CR centered for an AC joint projection on a single 17 x 14 inch image receptor?



    B. 1 inch above jugular notch
  116. What is bone metastases?



    A. Transfer of disease or cancerous lesions from one organ or part to bone tissue
  117. What is bursitis?



    A. Inflammation of bursae sacs around joints
  118. What is carpal tunnel?



    A. Common painful disorder of the wrist resulting from compression of the median nerve.
  119. What is a fracture?



    A. Break of a bone.
  120. What is a dislocation?



    B. When bone is displaced from a joint
  121. What is subluxation?



    A. Partial dislocation of a bone
  122. What is a simple fracture?



    A. Broken bone does not break through skin
  123. What is a compound fracture?



    A. Broken bone breaks through the skin.
  124. What is an incomplete fracture?



    A. Does not transverse through the entire bone.
  125. What is a complete fracture?



    D. Bone breaks into two pieces.
  126. What is a transverse fracture?



    A. Breaks at a right angle to the long axis of the bone
  127. What is an oblique fracture?



    D. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
  128. What is a spiral fracture?



    B. Bone twisted apart and spirals around th long axis of the bone
  129. What is a comminuted fracture?



    D. Bone is splintered or crushed
  130. What is an impacted fracture?



    D. When one fragment is firmmly driven into another
  131. What is rheumatoid arthritis?



    C. Inflammation of connective tissues through the body.
  132. What is osteoarthritis?



    D. Degenerative joint disease characterized by deterioartion of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation
  133. What is osteomyelitis?



    A. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by bacteria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulcers.
  134. What is pagets disease?



    B. A destructive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction of very dense soft bones that tend to fracture easily
  135. What is the difference between osteopetrosis and osteoperosis
    A. Osteopetrosis is HARDENING of bone
    B. Osteoperosis is reduction in quantity of bone
    C. Osteopetrosis is SOFTENING of the bone
    D. Osteoperosis is the HARDENING of the bone
    • Two answers:
    • Osteopetrosis is hardening of bone
    • Osteoperosis is reduction fo quantity of bone
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Positioning final quiz (1).txt
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