Volume 2 units review

  1. (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?



    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
  2. (201) Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?



    C. Ancillary training.
  3. (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?



    C. Maintenance Orientation.
  4. (201) Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?



    B. 13
  5. (201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?



    B. AF Form 623, Individual Trining Record
  6. (201) All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except
    A. MAJCOMs.
    B. supervisors.
    C. commanders.
    D. unit training managers.
    D. unit training managers.
  7. (201) Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to teh special certitication roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?



    C. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
  8. (201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold minimum grade of



    B. master sergent(MSgt)
  9. (202) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?



    C. II.
  10. (202) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?



    C. Maintenance qualification.
  11. (202) How oftern dose the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?



    B. Monthly.
  12. (202) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more that 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?



    B. 30
  13. (202) Who is responible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career developmnet course (CDC).



    B. Unit training manger
  14. (202) Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to



    C. determine training needs.
  15. (203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what Percentage of overhead manning?
    A. 5.
    B. 10.
    C. 15.
    D. 20.
    B. 10
  16. (203)Which element of a logistics composite model (LC
    OM) study considers weather modeling conditions?



    B. Operations requirments.
  17. (203) Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?



    C. Training deploymnets
  18. (203) Manpower authorziations are



    A. funded
  19. (203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not



    C. show the name of person assigned to a paritcular position
  20. (203) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held



    A. monthly.
  21. (203) Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the pffice of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?



    D. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).
  22. (204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?



    D. Maintenance supply liaison.
  23. (204) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?



    A. Collecting and turning in exependable, exxcess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
  24. (204) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?



    A. 30
  25. (204) How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares package (RSPs)?



    A. Annually.
  26. (205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigine to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?



    C. XB3
  27. (205) Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?



    B. 90.
  28. (205) Provided it si still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration data with type of shelf life item?



    A. II
  29. (205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?



    C. Cloudy water.
  30. (205) Whoo is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?



    D. Section supervisor.
  31. (205) In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsibel for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by teschnical guidance?



    D. MXG Commander.
  32. (205) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuing the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirement?



    A. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Manitenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
  33. (206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipmnet account custodian?



    D. Squadron Commander.
  34. (206) An individual must receive wht specific block of supply training before assuming duties as



    B. IIB.
  35. (206) Which of the following is not covered in the Percious Metals Recovery Program?



    B. Copper.
  36. (206) Which Percious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?



    B. A.
  37. (206) Which Precious Metals Indicatior Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    A. A.
    B. C.
    C. G.
    D. P.
    B. C.
  38. (207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?



    C. D04, Daily Document Register.
  39. (207) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-orderes parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?



    D. D18, Priortity Monitor Report.
  40. (207) Which supply tracking document provides a management profuct for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?



    D. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
  41. (208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?



    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
  42. (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
    A. F.
    B. D.
    C. B.
    D. A.
    D. A.
  43. (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
    A. F.
    B. D.
    C. B.
    D. A.
    A. F.
  44. (208) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?



    B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
  45. (208) Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?



    A. Maintenance Group commander
  46. (208) Who ulitmately determines if the secrity provieded at a transient location is adquate for classified assets installe on an aircraft?
    A. Aircraft commander.
    B. Host installation commander.
    C. Operations Group Commander.
    D. Mission Support Group commander.
    A. Aircraft commander
  47. (208) Who is responible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes and emergency landing?
    A. Nearest military installation.
    B. Local law enforcement.
    C. Aircraft commander.
    D. local fire chief.
    C. Aircraft commander
  48. (208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every



    A. 3 hours
  49. (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?



    A. 3
  50. (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirmnets?
    A. 4
    B. 5
    C. 6
    D. 7
    B. 5
  51. (209) Which urgency justification fodes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?



    B. AR or BR
  52. (209) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinte with?



    C. LRS material management element.
  53. (209) What is the accountability documnet used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out?



    B. Supply Point Listing
  54. (209) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the pail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the



    D. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
  55. (209) When a back-ordered intim issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the



    D. Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section.
  56. (209) When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), Which entery is not normally needed?



    B. Security Classification
  57. (210) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?



    B. Supply Discrepany Report.
  58. (210) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the subitting orgaization or group?
    A. Originator.
    B. Action Point.
    C. Screening Point.
    D. Origingting Point.
    D Originating Point.
  59. (210) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?



    C. Action Point
  60. (211) Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?



    D. Technical Orders.
  61. (211) Who is responsible for estblishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activites?



    A. MXG Commander (MXG/CC)
  62. (211) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) B. Assising units in establighting additional TODO accounts
    C. Advising MXG.CC on TO availability.
    D. Resolving TO availability problems.
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA)
  63. (212) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)



    C. Qualiry Assurance.
  64. (212) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?



    A. Standard.
  65. (212) A improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance world be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?



    A. Urgent
  66. (212) Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?



    A. HQ USA/A4MM
  67. (212) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations?
    A. Telphone
    B. Signed letter
    C. Organizational e-mail
    D. Defense Massage System.
  68. A. Telphone
  69. (213) If a serally controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?



    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentions (PS&D)
  70. (213) For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for haveing and aircraft down is



    B. 45-60 days
  71. (213) How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?



    A. Unshiedled
  72. (213) When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?



    C. Compass rose.
  73. (213) "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
    A. priority actions.
    B. a sense of urgency.
    C. specific local procedures.
    D. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
    D. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
  74. (213) During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to



    C. reduce the time needed to research parts.
  75. (213) Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?



    C. National Transportation Safety Board.
  76. (215) Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integriy Program (ASIP) project officer?



    B. MXG Commander.
  77. (213) What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?



    B. Plans, Scheduling, and Documention
  78. (214) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and managemetn of tools/equipment used on theflight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?



    B. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
  79. (214) In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and documnet a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?



    A. Annually
  80. (214) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?



    B. 9
  81. (214) In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?



    A. Unit
  82. (214) Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?



    A. Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
  83. (215) Who is the Quanlity Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardizatino and Exaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?



    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
  84. (215) Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?



    B. 6
  85. (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment fingding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipmnet?



    B. Major.
  86. (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?



    B. Quality Verification Inspection.
  87. (216) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the



    C. Quality Assurance section
  88. (216) the wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?



    A. 24
  89. (216) What dollar amount of damage must be exeeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?



    D. $20,000.
  90. (216) What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?



    C. Engine start to engine shut down.
  91. (216) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be prported IAW
    A. AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting.
    B. AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
    C. AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports
    D. AFI 91-221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports
    A. AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting.
  92. (217) Which AF publication provides general gudance for execution an effective maintenane recoveryoperation?
    A. AFTTP 3-21.1. Aircraft Maintenance.
    B. AFI 10-403, Deploymnet planning and Execution.
    C. AFI 33-103, Requiremnts Developmnet and Processing.
    D. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipmnet Maintenance Management.
    D. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipmnet Maintenance Management.
  93. (The maximum total intial duty time (includeng travel) that a manitenance recovery team member may be workd before being given 8 hours of uninterruped rest is



    A. 16 hours
  94. (217) Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibilly (OPR) for the maintenance group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instuction?



    B. Maintenance Flight.
  95. (217) How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recover (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?



    B. Annually
  96. (217) After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?



    D. Annually
  97. (218) Which AF Portal link provide access to recurring AF peridoicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?
    A. AF Electronic Publighting (AF e-Publishing)
    B. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS)
    C. AF Information Technology E-Learning (Af IT E-Learning)
    D. AF Center of Excellence for Knowledge Management (AFKM)
    A. AF Electronic Publishing (AF E- Publishing)
  98. (218) Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?



    C. AF Center for Elecronic Distribution of Systems (AFCEDS)
  99. (219) Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew teams members in support of aircraft generation planning?
    A. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operation Officer.
    B MXD Production Superintendent.
    C. Wing Weapons Manger.
    D. Munitions leadership
    C. Wing Weapons Manger
  100. (219) You are primarily concerned with answering the question:"What steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area?



    D. Aircraft generation actions
  101. (219) You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during which airecraft generation planning area?



    A. Aircraft generation action timing
Author
sraabney
ID
123032
Card Set
Volume 2 units review
Description
mupalbu choise
Updated