AUD FINAL 1

  1. Dynamic range of hearing is the difference between ______ and ______.
    • threshold curve
    • loudness discomfort level
  2. Dynamic range of hearing defines the range of hearing for a certain _______.
    frequency
  3. Dynamic range of hearing is greatest when the ear is most _________.
    sensitive
  4. Dynamic range of hearing is called the ________ when referring to the dynamic range across frequencies.
    audibility area
  5. Although SPL numbers are different they ceome ___ dB HL because _________.
    • 0
    • it is normal hearing
  6. dB SPL is a ______ measurement of sound and dB HL is a ______ measurement.
    • physical
    • perceptual
  7. What kind of hearing loss?
    Image Upload 1
    None - normal
  8. What kind of hearing loss?
    Image Upload 2
    Conductive
  9. What kind of hearing loss?
    Image Upload 3
    Sensorineural
  10. What kind of hearing loss?
    Image Upload 4
    Mixed
  11. Shadow audiogram
    Flat audiogram with threshold differences between right and left at about 40-55 dB
  12. Speech detection threshold is the detection threshold for speech in ______ and _______ is the stimulus.
    • dB HL
    • any speech signal
  13. The goal of SDT is to find the level in dB HL at which the patient can detect ____ % of the target words/sentences. Used most frequently with _____.
    • 50
    • children
  14. Speech recognition threshold is measured in _____ using _____ as stimuli.
    • dB HL
    • spondees (two syllable words with equal stress on both syllables)
  15. SRT is the lowest level at which at least _____ correct responses were given at that intensity.
    3
  16. Word recognition testing is NOT __________.
    a threshold measure
  17. Word recognition score is the _______ at a given level.
    percent correct
  18. Word recognition testing is often used to _________.
    obtain PB max
  19. 30 dB SL means __________.
    30 dB above an individual listener's threshold
  20. The SRT test is used to _____ and _______.
    • verify PTA
    • use as a reference level for administering word-recognition tests
  21. Familiar objects or names are often used to determine ______.
    SDT
  22. Many times, SRT may be predicted from the ______.
    pure tone audiogram
  23. Word recognition scores for a listener with normal hearing or a conductive hearing loss would usually be _____.
    100%
  24. PTA and SRT are usually _______.
    about equal or within 10 dB
  25. SDT is usually ________ the SRT.
    about 10 dB below
  26. Acoustic immittance examines the integrity of ____, _____ and ______.
    • the middle ear
    • the inner ear
    • the 8th nerve
  27. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is high, then the admittance of the tympanic membrane is _____.
    low
  28. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is low, then the admittance of the tympanic membrane is ____.
    high
  29. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is low, then the impedance of the tympanic membrane is ____.
    low
  30. Patients with retrocochlear pathology often show _____ in PI function.
    roll-over
  31. Patients with neural loss have difficulty processing/understanding sounds at high _________ level.
    INTENSITY
  32. A screening audiometer does not have the capability for what?
    bone conduction testing
  33. A device used for the calibration of an audiometer in sound field (using loud speakers) should include _____ but not ____ or _____.
    • a sound level meter
    • not an artificial mastoid
    • not a 6 cc coupler
  34. Air bone gap is indicative of what kind of hearing loss?
    either conductive or mixed
  35. Air conduction can be the same or _____ than bone conduction but never _____.
    • poorer
    • better
  36. Sensorineural hearing loss may be produced by damage to ____ or ______.
    • the inner ear
    • the auditory nerve
  37. Which clinical practice in audiology is used to identify a person with potential hearing loss?
    screening
  38. Dynamic range of hearing is _____ across frequency.
    different
  39. The middle ear does what?
    • impedance matching transformer
    • Transmit sound from TM to the inner ear
    • Amplify the sound around 1500 Hz
  40. Which of the following is true of masking dilemma?



    A. BCTE + IA < IMLNTE
  41. The most efficient type of masking noise for pure-tone testing is ___.
    narrow band noise
  42. Minimum masking for bone conduction at 250 Hz is:
    AC (non-test ear) + 10 + 30
  43. The right contralateral acoustic reflex can be used to measure the integrity of ________.
    the left facial nerve
  44. When there is damage to the auditory nerve, acoustic reflexes are typically _________.
    absent or elevated
  45. Reflex decay at 500 Hz to half amplitude within 5 seconds suggests ___________.
    a retrocochlear lesion
  46. The tympanic membrane is maximally compliant when _______.
    middle earpressure equals outer ear pressure
  47. The acoustic reflex is present for ipsilateral but absent for both right and left contralateral suggests:
    lesion in the trapezoid body (in superior olivary complex)
  48. The general classification of surgical procedure for repairing damage of middle ear structure is _________.
    tympanoplasty
  49. Cytomegalovirus (CMV), syphilis, and rubella are ______.
    congenital infections that cause perinatal hearing loss
  50. Children with cleft palate have a higher incidence of otitis media with effusion because __________.
    they have chronic eustachian tube dysfunction due to disruptions of the tensor veli palatini muscle
  51. Ménière's disease and presbycusis will both have a _____ tympanogram.
    Type A
  52. A listener with normal hearing in both ears is presented with a 2000 Hz tone in his right ear at 40 dB HL and a 2000 Hz tone in his left ear at 70 dB HL. The listener should report (think about stinger effect):
    that he hears a tone in his left ear only
  53. What is a common type of finding with pseudohypacusis?
    lack of cross-hearing in profound unilateral hearing loss
  54. Cahart notch is most common in _____.
    women
  55. PE tube (pressure equalizing tube) is designed to function primarily as an artificial what?
    eustachian tube
  56. A pseudotumor in the middle ear composed of skin and fatty tissues is called what?
    cholesteatoma
  57. To calculate the dynamic range of the listener for speech:
    difference between SRT and LDL
  58. Cannot predict _____ easily from audiogram.
    word recognition
  59. •Rules for interaural attenuation for air conduction apply to speech audiometry:
    SRTTE – IA ≥ bestBC NTE
  60. UCL/LDL for normal listeners is ______ dB HL.
    100-110
Author
amykath
ID
121994
Card Set
AUD FINAL 1
Description
Audiology Final review
Updated