NP610DBquizes

  1. All of the following are risk factors for DVT except:




    E) infection
  2. Which of the following are classic signs of DVT?




    D) a&b
  3. Which of the following is the most likely to be found in deep vein thrombophlebitis DVT?



    C) unilateral leg edema
  4. Major side effects of statins include which of the following?



    B) rhabdomyolosis
  5. The most common form of skin cancer is:



    A) basal cell carcinoma
  6. The American Cancer Society uses an ABCDE mnemonic to help patients and healthcare providers identify suspicious skin lesions. What does "B" represent?



    A) Border
  7. A 72 y/o woman presents with a newly formed, painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with an overlying telangiectasis on the upper lip. This most likely represents:



    D) a basal cell carcinoma
  8. A 49 y/o man presents with a skin lesion suspicious for malignant melanoma. You describe the lesion as having:



    C) variable pigmentation
  9. Risk factors for malignant melanoma include:



    B) History of blistering sunburn
  10. When are surgical measures (total hip and knee replacements) necessary to provide symptomatic and functional improvement of symptoms?



    C) both a & c
  11. Degenerative joint disease (DJD) can affect all of the following joints except:



    A) Wrist and MCP joints
  12. Signs and symptoms of DJD include which of the following:



    D) all of the above
  13. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of joint disease and is chiefly a disease of aging. This disease is also associated with which of the following:



    A) both a & c
  14. Cholelithiasis is



    D) the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
  15. Acute cholecystitis is almost always caused by gallstones.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true: 90-95% of cases of acute cholecystitis is due to stones
  16. Risk factors for gallstone disease include:




    E) all of the above
  17. A HIDA scan can detect both acute calculous cholecystitis and chronic acalculous cholecystitis.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true: gallstones and biliary dyskinesia can be detected by HIDA scans
  18. Indications for cholecystectomy include which of the following:



    D) all of the above
  19. 1st line therapeutic measures for TIA include all of the following except:



    D) all of the above
  20. The difference b/w TIA and Stroke is:



    • A) sxs 30min or less= TIA
    • 60min or more= stroke
  21. Following a TIA, the risk of stroke is:



    D) 30% w/in 5 yrs of TIA
  22. Crescendo TIAs are defined as:
    a) tinnitis that increases in amplitude during the ischemic attack that resolves once the episode completes
    \b) there is no such thing
    c) TIAs that become more frequent and present with increasing intensity
    d) TIAs associated with worsening headaches
    c) more freq and intense
  23. The NIH Stroke Scale is a tool used to:



    C) level of deficit due to ischemic event
  24. Fecal incontinence can occur w/o the pt being aware. Which of the following health conditions can cause this to occur:



    D) all of the above
  25. Which of the following techniques is used to define the severity of rectal weakness, assess rectal sensation, and to predict response to biofeedback training?



    B) anal manometry

    • US- for anatomical defects
    • EMG - sphincter neuropathy and myopathy
    • proct-oscopy - CA or proctitis
  26. The main causes of fecal incontinence are:



    D) all
  27. All of the following are initial measures taken to treat fecal incontinence except:



    C) surgery - last measure to tx
  28. When pts relearn to perceive distention with intra-rectal balloons and to adequately contract the external sphincter with visual manometry is called:



    A) biofeedback
  29. What is the initial imaging of choice to diagnose appendicitis in pregnancy?



    C) US, CT scan
  30. All of the following are common outcomes of untreated appendicitis except:



    C) small bowel obstruction
  31. All of the following are common signs associated with appendicitis except:



    C) McBurney sign - it's McBurney POINT
  32. Without surgery or antibiotics, mortality for appendicitis is:



    A) 50%
  33. A pt with pulmonary embolus may have which of the following manifestations?



    D) all
  34. Which of the following is the #1 preventable cause of cardiovascular disease worldwide?



    A) smoking
  35. Angina may occur in the absence of coronary artery obstruction as a result of which of the following:



    D) all
  36. The current US guidelines recommend initiating antihypertensive medications in pt with BP >/= 140/90 or w/ BP >/= 130/80 in high risk pts.
    a) True
    b) False
    a) true
  37. The pathophysiology of venous ulcers, though unclear, is due to venous incompetence and venous HTN.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  38. What are the goals of treatment for venous ulcer stasis?



    D) all
  39. Factors that may lead to venous incompetence include all of the following EXCEPT:



    A) mobility
  40. What are the risk factors for developing venous stasis ulcers?




    E) all
  41. What are the symptoms of venous ulcers?




    E) all
  42. The most common causative organism in UTI's is:



    D) E coli - 85% of cases
  43. Risk factors for a UTI include which of the following:



    D) all of the above
  44. Which of the following statements about UTI's are false?



    B) The urethra is short.
  45. 1st line treatment for a pt with an uncomplicated UTI caused by E. coli and who has NKDA includes:



    A) Bactrim - 1st line tx

    • Cipro - for uncomplicated pyelonephritis
    • Phenazopyridine for urinary analgesic to relieve discomfort of dysuria.
  46. Antibiotic prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs may be indicated with 2 or more symptomatic UTIs in 6 months or 3 or more in 12 months.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  47. Pain, discomfort, tiredness, aching and cramping caused by classic claudication, a sx of PAD:



    C) reproducible with similar walking
  48. The single most modifible risk factor for the development of peripheral artery disease is:



    B) smoking
  49. Which of the following is NOT a physical finding of PAD?



    B) unilateral cool extremity
  50. Which of the following pts is at risk for having PAD?




    E) all
  51. Which type of evaluation is necessary in order to make a definitive diagnosis of mucosal inflammation?



    B) bx
  52. A pt presents stating that he is concerned about getting ulcers. It would be appropriate for the NP to tell this pt that an aspirin/day will help to preven them.
    a) true
    b) false
    b) false
  53. What is MOST frequently associated with peptic ulcers?



    C) H. pylori
  54. Appropriate differential diagnoses for a pt complaining of ulcer-like sxs would be:



    C) pancreatitis and gallstones
  55. Which of the following bacteria is the main causative agent for UTI?



    B) E. coli
  56. Which of the following would be least likely to contribute to urinary incontinence?



    D) non-smoker
  57. Urinary incontinence impacts a woman's quality of life as much as:



    A) DM type 1 and depression
  58. All of the following are true of urinary incontinence except:



    C) 33% is too much!
  59. The following clinical manifestations are seen in Parkinson's disease except:



    B) emotional incontinence
  60. Early tx of Parkinson's consists of nonpharmacologic therapies and initial sx treatment.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  61. The following autonomic dysfunctions are common in Parkinson's except:



    B) symmetric bilateral weakness
  62. Which of the following factors is implicated on the pathogenesis of Parkinson's.



    D) oxidative stress
  63. Despite the many etiologies of neuropathic pain, it is usually:



    C) yes?
  64. Preventive foot care and teaching for pts with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy would include all of the following except:



    B)
  65. In a pt presenting w/ sxs of peripheral neuropathy, pressure sensation can be measured with a ____ and vibration with a _____.



    A)
  66. All are true statements about peripheral neuropathy except:



    D)
  67. Risk factors for lung cancer include:





    E)
  68. Chronic cough:




    E)
  69. Lung cancer in never smokers




    A)
  70. Systemic screening for lung CA is not currentlly recommended by any major professional organizations
    a) true
    b) false
    a)
  71. The leading cause of small bowel obstruction is:



    B) adhesions
  72. Complications of SBO are which of the following?



    D) all
  73. Sxs of SBO can include all EXCEPT:



    D)
  74. Sxs of large bowel obstruction can include:



    D)
  75. The leading cause of large bowel obstruction is:



    B) neoplasm
Author
Anonymous
ID
121729
Card Set
NP610DBquizes
Description
Quizzes from DB
Updated