Respiratory Disease Final

  1. Appropriate ways to ensure that a patientor caregiver is competent to perform a procedure is to which of the following:



    D. All of the above
  2. Which of the following would not be part of the environmental assessment?



    A. Assessment of vital signs
  3. Which of the following is true about the RT's evaluation in an initial home care visit?



    A. A and C
  4. Which of the following procedures would not generally NOT be assessed during a respiratory home care visit?



    A. Mixed venous blood gas analysis
  5. Which of the following is true about the patient's plan of care?



    D. All of the above
  6. State 3 of the 5 pathologic changes associated with ARDS.
    • Interstial and intra-alveolar edema and hemorrhage
    • Alveolar consolidation
    • Intra-alveolar hyaline membrane formation
    • Pulmonary surfactant deficiency or abnormality
    • Atelectasis
  7. True of False? Upon percussion of an ARDS patient, hyperresonant percussion notes are heard?
    False - dull percussion notes are heard
  8. Which of the following is or are recommended ventilation strategies for most patients with ARDS?
    1. High tidal volumes
    2. Low respiratory rates
    3. High respiratory rates
    4. Low tidal volumes




    C. 1 and 3 only (high tidal volumes and high respiratory rates)
  9. True or False? A chest x-ray will reveal increased opacity of an ARDS patient?
    True
  10. True or False? ARDS is an obstructive lung disease.
    False. Restrictive lung disease
  11. Guillain-Barre is an autoimmune disorder of the ________ (peripheral, autonomic) nervous system.
    Peripheral
  12. The paralysis os the skeletal muscles results from the ___________ of the nerves which inhibits the neurons ability to transmit resulting in paralysis



    D. All of the above
  13. Greater incidence of Guillain-Barre has been noted in people of what age?



    B. 45 and older
  14. Guillain-Barre typically has elevated levels of what immunoglobin against the mylin?



    A. IgM
  15. True of False? Deep tendon reflexes are usually absent.
    True
  16. Approximately 1.3 million people per year in the U.S. are diagnosed with:



    D. Pulmonary effusion
  17. (Transudative, Exudative) pleural effusions are usually caused by inflammation, infection, or malignancy
    Exudative
  18. What is the most commone cause of transudative pleural effusion?
    Congestive heart failure
  19. Pleural effusions will present as a (obstructive, restrictive) lung disorder in pulmonary function testing
    Restrictive
  20. A procedure that causes inflammation and irritation between the parietal and visceral pleura that causes them to stick together, preventing subsequent fluid build up in the pleura is called:



    D. Pleurodesis
  21. Typical symptoms of right-sided heart failure in clued of the following except which one?



    D. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
  22. Syncope is associated with standing up quickly may be the result of which of the following?
    A. Hyoperthermia
    B. Orthostatic hyperstension
    B. Orthostatic hypotension
    D. Pulmonary hypertension
    C. Orthostatic hypotension
  23. Which serum value may decrease as a result of the normal aging process?



    D. Calcium
  24. Based on current data, which of the following is the estimated PaO2 of a heathly 74 year old person?



    D. 84.2 mmHg
  25. Ageism is defined as which of the following?



    B. A discriminatory attitude against older people
  26. Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive gene disorder caused by mutations in a pair of genes on what chromosome?
    7
  27. What percent of patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis by the age of two?



    C. 70%
  28. Which of the following is the most popular test used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?


    C. Sweat test
  29. True or False? Lung expansion therapy such as IPPB may be used to offset alveolar atelectasis in patients with cystic fibrosis?
    True
  30. All of the following is a sign or symptom of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:



    B. Bradycardia
  31. Which of the following are a major pathologic and structural change of the lungs associated with pulmonary edema?
    1. Alveolar flooding
    2. Frothy white (or pink) secretions
    3. Hyperinflation of distal alveoli
    4. Atelectasis




    B. 1,2,4
  32. What is the most common cause of cardiac pulmonary edema?
    1. Allergic reaction to drugs
    2. Central nervous system stimulation
    3. Left sided heart failure (CHF)
    4. Pulmonary embolus
    3. Left sided heart failure (CHF)
  33. During an assessment of a patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema, chest assessment findings would include:
    1. Increased tactile and vocal fremitus
    2. Crackles, wheezing, and rhonchi
    3. Decreased tactile and vocal fremitus
    4. Bronchial breath sounds




    C. 1,2
  34. Some common findings on a chest radiograph of a patient with pulmonary edema would include all of the following EXCEPT:



    D. Right ventricular enlargement
  35. The common therapeutic interventions used for pulmonary edema are?
    1. Restriction of sodium and water intake
    2. Albumin
    3. Exercise
    4. Atropine




    B. 1,2,3,4
  36. Which of the following is a pulmonary effect of starvation?



    C. Increased risk of pneumonia
  37. Which of the following might hinder attempts at nutritional repletion in patients with respiratory distress?



    D. All of the above
  38. What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?



    C. Iron
  39. Which of the following should the majority of dietary intake be made up of?



    B. Carbohydrate
  40. How much of our diet is composed of fat?



    A. 30%
  41. When mechanical ventilation is used to stablize a flail chest, how much time generally is needed for adequate bone healing to occur?



    A. 5 to 10 days
  42. A flail chest consists of a double fracture of at least?



    C. 3 or more adjacent ribs
  43. The physician usually elects to evacuate the intrathoracic gas when the pneumothorax is greater than?



    C. 20%
  44. Which of the following may cause a pneumothorax?
    1. Belbs
    2. COPD
    3. Pneumonia
    4. Tuberculosis




    D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  45. When gas enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to leave during expiration, the patient is said to have an?
    1. Iatrogenic pneumothorax
    2. Valvular pneumothorax
    3. Tension pneumothorax
    4. Open pneumothorax




    D. 3 only
  46. What is another name for small cell lung cancer?


    C. Oat Cell
  47. This type of tumor does not travel through the blood stream or lymphatics


    B. Benign
  48. What is the leading cause of lung cancer?



    B. Cigarette smoking
  49. This type of cancer has the strongest correlation to smoking



    D. Small cell carcinoma
  50. This is a partial removal of a lung lobe.




    E. Wedge resection
  51. Myasthenia gravis causes all the following EXCEPT:



    A. Increased VT
  52. Which of the following are clinical manisfestations of myasthenia gravis?
    1. Ptosis
    2. Diplopia
    3. Difficulty in breating, speaking, chewing and swallowing
    4. Facial muscle fatigue
    5. Continuous, irreversible weakness in arms, hands, fingers, legs, and neck





    B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  53. The receptor sites for ______________ are blocked or destroyed by antibodies in patients with myasthenia gravis.



    D. Aceytocholine
  54. Ventilatory failure in patients with myasthenia gravis may be accompanied with all of the following EXCEPT:



    C. Pneumothorax
  55. Myasthenia gravis causes which of the following alterations to arterial blood gas measurements?
    1. Decrease in pH
    2. Increase in PaCO2
    3. Increase in HCO3
    4. Decrease in PaO2




    A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Author
maschone
ID
121676
Card Set
Respiratory Disease Final
Description
micro teaching questions
Updated