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  1. An increase in percentage of water vapor in the air would cause the partial pressure of oxygen to:
  2. Which of the muscles are important in forced respiration?
    External intercostals and sternocleidomastoid
  3. The _____ is lined with mucosa to remove particulates from the respiratory tract
    Conducting zone and respiratory zone
  4. Restrictive disorders reduce:
    Compliance, distensibility, and vital capacity
  5. Compliance is the tendency of the lungs to _____ and is necessary for ______
    Expand, inspiration
  6. Surfactant produced by _____ prevents the alveoli from collapsing during expiration
    Type II alveolar cells
  7. The _____ attaches to the vocal folds and swivels to regulate their tension
    Arytenoid cartilage
  8. The total lung volume includes the vital capacity and _____.
    Residual volume
  9. Hemoglobin saturation increases as a result of which of the following?
    Increasing pH
  10. An increase in pCO2 will result in _____ dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin
  11. Digestion
    • The area of most abundant true goblet cells is:
    • Colon
  12. Which of the following inhibits stomach secretion and motility while simultaneously stimulating bile release, pancreatic enzyme release, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi?
  13. Amino acids are absorbed into mucosal cells principally by:
    Active co-transport
  14. Negative feedback on stomach secretin and motility as acid chime reaches the duodenum results from the secretion into the bloodstream of:
  15. The lining of the esophagus is:
    Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
  16. Peyer�s patches are lymph nodules found mostly in the:
  17. Which of the following is a brush border enzyme?
  18. Pepsinogen is secreted by:
    Chief cells located only in the stomach
  19. The pyloric sphincter is forcefully constricted and other stomach muscle inhibited by:
    Enterogastric reflex
  20. The hierarchy of enzyme function ______ must act before ____ can act
    Typsin before aminopeptidase
  21. The ____ stimulates gastric secretion during the cephalic phase and as a result of physical contact in the stomach
    Vagus nerve
  22. Three distinct bands of longitudinal smooth muscle are found in the:
  23. The upper third of the esophagus has:
    Skeletal muscle only
  24. ____ is/are responsible for emulsifying fats
    Bile salts
  25. Absorption of water occurs mostly in the:
    Small intestines
  26. Three distinct layers of smooth muscle are found in the:
  27. If you see villi and goblet cells you are looking at the:
    Small intestines
  28. Positive feedback on stomach secretion and motility as acid chime reaches the pylorus results from the secretion into the bloodstream of:
  29. Which of the following is/are true sphincters?
    Pyloric and ileocecal sphincters
  30. The ____ has Brunner�s glands which secrete an acid-neutralizing mucus
  31. Hypersecretion of insulin occurs in:
    Diabetes Type II and reactive hypoglycemia
  32. (T/F) Fats are lipolyzed to glycerol and fatty acids when glycogen stores begin to run low
  33. The primary hormone in the absorptive phase of glycemic regulation is:
  34. (T/F) Fats are readily converted to glucose when glycogen stores run low
  35. The hormone which stimulates lipolysis is:
    Epinephrine and glucagon
  36. An excessive amount of ___ can cause hypoglycemia
  37. Deamination results in molecules of ____ which are exceted through the kidneys
  38. Management of diabetes Type I is through:
    Administration of insulin
  39. Diabetes type I results from damage to the ___ pancreatic islet cells which secrete insufficient amounts of _____.
    Beta, insulin
  40. The hormone which stimulates glucose synthesis from amino acids during severe stress conditions is:
  41. Most reabsorbed substances enter the interstitial fluid and the ______:
    Peritubular capillaries
  42. The hormone instrumental in facultative absorption of water is:
  43. In the countercurrent exchange of salt, NaCl is taken fro the medulla into the _____ only to be returned to the medulla from the _____:
    Descending limb of the vasa recta, ascending limb of the vasa recta
  44. Most reabsorption of water occurs from the:
    Proximal convoluted tubule
  45. Deficient secretion of ____ produces diabetes insipidus
  46. Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system causes _____ of the ______.
    Vasoconstriction, afferent arteriole
  47. Aldosterone-controlled salt reabsorption occurs from the:
    Distal convoluted tubule
  48. The _____ is lined completely with transitional epithelium for stretchability.
    Urinary bladder
  49. In response to direct stimuli by the macula densa cells the:
    Afferent arteriole vasodilates and the efferent arteriole vasoconstricts
  50. The substance produced in response to renin which causes vasoconstriction in the efferent arteriole and arterioles is:
    Angiotensin II
  51. Which of the following is a normal constituent of urine:
  52. The substance ____ is released by the juxtaglomerular cells when stimulated by the macula densa.
  53. When large amounts of acid must be secreted the H+ are neutralized with amines and made into:
    Ammonium ions
  54. The cells which sense flow rate and salt concentration in the distal convoluted tubule are the:
    Macula densa cells
  55. The process of secretion occurs in all the following except:
    The loop of Henle
  56. Cortical blood vessels served by the efferent arteriole are the:
    Peritubular capillaries
  57. Facultative water reabsorption occurs from the:
    Collecting tube
  58. The hormone, also known as vasopressin, which produces arteriole vasoconstriction when secreted in response to reduced blood volume is:
  59. Most reabsorption of glucose occurs from the:
    Proximal convoluted tubule
  60. The ____ lead directly to the afferent arterioles.
    Interlobular arteries
  61. Co-active transport is instrumental in the reabsorption of:
  62. The blood vessels leading directly to the glomerulus are the:
    Afferent arterioles
  63. Most reabsorption of glucose occurs from the:
    Proximal convoluted tubule
  64. When the blood is not acidic the most common cation secreted is:
  65. The inner medulla is very _____ due to the countercurrent exchange of salt.
  66. Direct myogenic response to increased blood pressure produces ____ in the _____.
    Vasodilation, afferent arterioles
  67. ACTH stimulates the release of all of the following except:
    Testosterone and epinephrine
  68. Which of the following hormones is produced by neurons origination in the hypothalamus:
    Oxytocin and ADH
  69. Secretion of PTH is triggered by:
    Decreased plasma calcium levels
  70. Releasing and inhibition hormones from the hypothalamus control hormones released from the:
  71. The hormone which responds to infant sucking to produce continued milk after birth is:
    Prolactin and oxytocin
  72. Acromegly is a disorder associated with hypersecretion of:
  73. Which of the following stimulates protein synthesis along with both carbohydrate and fat catabolism?
  74. A decrease in plasma calcium levels triggers the secretion of:
  75. The hormone which stimulates contration of uterin smooth muscle to produce labor is:
  76. Which of the following g is NOT a cland controlled directly by plasma substrate levels:
    Thyroid follicular cells (Islets of Langerhans, thyroid parafollicular cells, and parathyroid gland all controlled by substrate levels)
  77. Reproduction/Endocrine
    • The ____ is directly stimulated by plasma levels of substrate.
    • Thyroid parafollicular cells, pancreas, parathyroid gland
  78. Which of the following enters the nucleus of target cells to increase their basal metabolic rate?
  79. The hypothalamus directly controls the ___ through releasing and inhibiting hormones.
  80. In response to ___ the primary oocyte becomes ____.
    LH, secondary oocyte
  81. The hormone _____ is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum during the ovulatory cycle.
  82. The uterine ____ phase and the ovarian ____ phase occur together.
    Proliferative & follicular and secretory & luteal
  83. The ____ stores hormones released from neurons originating in the hypothalamus
  84. The hormone ___ is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
  85. Produces semen containing acid phosphatase which activates the spermatozoa.
  86. The corpus luteum produces ______.
    Estrogen and progesterone
  87. The ____ is directly stimulated by the hypothalamus and not part of the hypothalamic-pituitary control mechanism.
    Adrenal medulla
  88. The substance ____ feeds back to the hypothalamus to regulate spermatogenesis.
  89. The hormone _____ is the primary cause of the ovary�s follicular phase
  90. The hormone ___ is the primary hormone produced by the ovary during its follicular phase.
  91. The hormone ____ is produced by the ovary during its lueal phase.
    Estrogen and progesterone
  92. In direct response to TRH, the _____ will secrete _____.
    Anterior pituitary, TSH
  93. The hormone _____ is the primary cause of the uterine proliferative phase.
  94. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid produce:
  95. A venous network which helps to maintain a temperature in the testicle which is several degrees below body temp.
    Pampiniform plexus
  96. As a result of increased energy demand, ____ is released by the hypothalamus.
  97. Produces most seminal fluid containing nutrients and bicarbonate.
    Seminal vesicle
  98. The portion of the uterus not subject to cyclic exfoliation is:
  99. At birth a woman has a limited number of ____ which are found inside the ____.
    Primary oocytes, primordial follicles
  100. In the male ____ acts on the sustentacular (nurse) cells to cause the production of ____ which interacts with ___ causing spermatogenesis.
    FSH, Androgen binding protein, testosterone
  101. The tissue that responds to hormonal stimulation in cyclic buildup and exfoliation is:
    Stratum functionalis of the endometrium
  102. In response to ____ the mature follicle becomes _____.
    LH, Corpus luteum
  103. An interarterial anastomosis:
    Provides collateral circulation of blood to a tissue or organ to compensate for a partial blockage.
  104. An example of an arteriovenous anastomosis would be:
    In the GI tract where blood is decreased during exercise
  105. Gives rise to the umbilical artery
    Internal iliac artery
  106. Sends blood from the pulmonary to the systemic division in the fetus
    Ductus arteriosus
  107. A branch from the right coronary artery:
    Marginal artery
  108. Fetal vessel which bypasses the liver:
    Ducus venosus
  109. GIves rise to the splenic, common hepatic, and left gastric arteris:
    celiac trunk
  110. Which of the following are active phagocytes:
    neutrophils and monocytes
  111. Erythropoietin increases the _____ of red blood cell production.
    Rate and proportion compared to wbc and platelets
  112. Coumadin competes with _____ for receptors which stimulate production of clotting proteins.
    Vitamin K
  113. Calcium ions are important for the:
    Intrinsic, extrinsic, and common clotting pathways
  114. Activaltion of genes that produce fetal hemoglobin can be used to manage sickle cell anemia because it has no ____ globin chains.
  115. Rouleaux is:
    The tendency of red blood cells to stack up together before entering a capillary in single file.
  116. The thin tan layer of white cells and platelets found at the end of the formed elements in an hematocrit tube is called the:
    Buffy coat
  117. Most carbon dioxide is transported:
    as an equilibrium between carbonic acid and its dissociation products
  118. Before a clot forms, a _____ may be sufficient to produce hemostasis in damaged capillaries.
    a platelet plug
  119. The substance _____, produced by recombinant bacteria, is used to reduce damage in thrombosis occurring in embolitic stroke and myocardial infarction.
    TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
  120. Your blood is redirected to the local areas of the skin during cold temperatures to avoid tissue damage. This is due to:
  121. Your blood is directed away from the skin during cold temperatures. This is due to:
    the vasomotor center
  122. The pulse pressure is absent in the:
    Veins, venules, and capillaries
  123. The pulse pressure disappears (ends) in the:
  124. The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) is considered negative (inward flow) at the:
    venous end of the capillaries
  125. The muscular pump works together with _____ to move blood toward the heart where the pressure gradient is insufficient.
    semilunar valves
  126. The greatest cross sectional area for the entire vascular component is found in the:
  127. Stretched veins and/or semilunar valves:
    varicose veins
  128. Inflammation of a veins, often resulting in sluggish blood flow

    • A blood clot in a vessel
    • thrombosis
  129. Obstruction of a blood vessel, usually by a clot which has moved from a different location
  130. A balloon-like bulge in the wall of an artery
  131. Smooth muscle is proportionally the greatest component of the tunica media in:
    muscular arteries
  132. The type of capillaries found in the spleen is the:
  133. A smooth lining for the vessels

    • A cell important in repair and replacement of capillaries
    • pericyte
  134. A pore which allows increased size and rate of transport
  135. Gaps within tight junctions which allow molecular transport
    intercellular cleft
  136. Essentially the basement membrane, it contains collagen and othe pro-coagulants
  137. Water and solutes which accumulate in the interstitial fluid from capillary filtration are returned to the circulation through:
    the lymph system
  138. As a result of exercise the cardiac center receives input from the:
    the hypothalamus
  139. A symptom of hemorrhagic loss of blood would be:
    increased heart rate
  140. The closing of the AV valves is due to:
    increasing ventricular pressure
  141. The mechanism called _____ maintains the moment to moment cardiac output and pressure.
    the baroreceptor reflex
  142. The long refractory period exhibited by myocardial cells is indicated by diagram number:

    • AV valves close at:
    • 2

    • Which of the following will decrease cardiac output?
    • Increased ESV and increased peripheral resistance
  143. This letter would be missing in sinus nodal block.
    P wave

    • The ECG with a missing QRS peak shows:
    • Heart block
  144. The posterior interventricular artery forms an interaterial anastomosis with vessel _____ to provide collateral circulation to the myocardium.
    Anterior interventricular artery
  145. Increasing pressure due to ventricular contraction closes which valves?
    Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
  146. Between points B and C increased myocardial stretch will lead to _____ contractility.
  147. An increase in the threshold of the hearts nodal myogenic cells will:
    Decrease the rate of autorhythmicity
  148. The second heart sound occurs as a result of valve closure due to:
    Ventricular relaxation
  149. Which of the following work as part of lymphokinetic motion in humans?
    Smooth muscle in lymphatic vessels and downward pressure gradient in lymph system.
  150. The labeling of antigens to make them more visible to phagocytes is called:
  151. The lowest hydrostatic pressure is found in the:
    large veins of the circulation
  152. Which of the following work as part of the muscular pump in lymphokinetic motion in humans?
    semilunar valves in lymphatic vessels
  153. The _____ secrete interleukins I and II in response to contact with an activated macrophage.
    Helper T-cells
  154. The location of immunocopetence of T-cell lymphocytes is the:
  155. The antibody receptors on immunocompetent B cells
  156. Gamma globulins, these ultimately make up the bulk of the antibodies produced in response to infection
  157. These are pentamers, and the first type of antibodies produced in response to infection
  158. These antibodies are found in the body's secretions
  159. These antibodies are produced in response to an allergen which is not pathogenic

    • Which of the following would you see in the ECG as the result of electrolyte imbalance:
    • The presence of a prominent U wave
  160. Which of the following would you see in the ECG as the result of ischemia or myocardial infarction:
    • An abnormal or extra Q wave
    • Excessive elevation of the ST segment
  161. Increasing the peripheral resistance would have a:
    negative inotropic effect
  162. Contractility and afterload are _______.
    inversely related
  163. Contractility and preload are _______.
    directly related

    • The superior mesenteric vein joins the _____ to produce the _____.
    • splenic vein, hepatic portal vein

    • The left gastric, common hepatic, and splenic arteries are all branches from the:
    • celiac trunk
  164. Explain what a beta blocker does that produces a negative inotropic (force related) effect.
    Beta blockers block sympathetic stimulation of the myocardium, thus reducing its contractility.

    • Describe specifically how the cardiac cycle DIAGRAM would differ for the right heart compared to one for the left heart that we normally view.
    • The systolic pressure would be approximately one fifth as much in the right heart than in the left heart.

    • Identify the mechanism which results in rapid pulse rate as a result of hemorrhage.
    • Baroreceptor Reflex
  165. The principle which describes the length-tension relationship for the heart is known as:
    Frank-Starling Law
  166. What does the kidney secrete that influences oxygen transport in the blood?
  167. An increase in the threshold of the hearts myogenic cells will:
    decrease the rate of autorhythmicity
  168. The principle cause of an increased EDV is:
    Increased venous return
  169. An increase in EDU combined with a decrease in ESV will result in:
    Increased cardiac efficiency, increased stroke volume, increased preload and decreased afterload
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