Positioning Final

  1. _____ is the longitudinal or transverse plane that is at an angle and not parallel to the sagittal, coronal, or horizontal planes
  2. Which of the following terms describes the anterior surface of the foot?
  3. The opposite term for supination?
  4. Whih of the following are the markers required to be imprinted on every radiograph?
    Patient ID/medical #, date, anatomic side marker
  5. Andrea is lying on her stomach. The left side of her body is turned 30 degrees toward the IR. What is the radiographic position?
  6. Bonnie is lying on her left side with the IR behind her. The x-ray tube aimed horizontally. Which of the following is correct?
    Left lateral decubitus-AP projection
  7. A patient is erect with the ventral side directly against IR. The CR enters the midsagittal plane of the body. WHich of the following projections is correct?
  8. The horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior planes describes the:
    Axial plane
  9. A body in correct anatomical position is:
  10. An upright position with the arms adducted, palms forward, and head forward describes the:
    Anatomic position
  11. What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers the bone?
  12. How many degrees is a true lateral position from a true AP pr PA projection?
  13. How many bones are found in the adult human appendicular skeleton?
  14. Oblique positions are described according to the side of the body:
    Closest to the IR
  15. Away from the head end of the body:
  16. An inward stress movement of the foot
  17. Ipsilateral means:
    On the same side of the body
  18. ____ are found between the diaphysis and each epiphysis until skeletal growth is complete?
    Epiphyseal plates
  19. The vertical plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts describes the?
    Frontal or coronal plane
  20. What is the term for when bones replace cartilage?
    Endochondral ossification
  21. Connie comes to the ER with an injured wrist. You must take:
    PA, lateral, and oblique
  22. Which of the following bones is not part of the axial skeleton?
    Hip bone
  23. What is the study of joints?
  24. A position where the head is lower than the feet?
  25. The vertebrae bones are examples of:
    Irregular bones
  26. A 15% decrease in kVp will decrease density the same as ____ the mAs.
  27. What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast?
  28. How does increasing the SID affect the distortion of the anatomy?
  29. By increasing the SID, this deceases the amount of x-rays hitting the body by:
  30. What is the amount of blackness on the processed film image?
  31. Which of the following is the penetrating power of the primary beam?
  32. Where the edges of the projected image are blurry fue to geometry is termed?
  33. A large OID:
    increases magnification
  34. THe greater the angle of the plane of an object being radiographed:
    The greater the distortion
  35. The closer to the CR (from left to right):
    The less the beam diverges
  36. Which of the following is not one of the 4 factors affecting image quality?
    Object image distance OID
  37. Which of the following factors primarily controls radiographic density?
  38. A longer SID causes:
    Less distortion
  39. What is the lack of visible detail called?
  40. What part of the x-ray beam does not diverge?
  41. A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and non-diagnostic. The following exposure factors were used: 50 kV, 2 mAs, 40 in. (100 cm) SID. Which of the following sets of exposure factors should be used during the repeat exposure?
    58 kV, 2 mAs, 40 in SID (increase kV 15%)
  42. A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion due to bowel peristalsis (contractions). Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
    Decrease exposure time
  43. A female patient recieves an AP lumbar spine. The technique and dose is 17 cm, 92 kV, 8 mAs, Sk. 176, ML 51, Gon 31.5. What would be the gonadal dose if gonaldal shielding is correctly used?
    50-90% less
  44. Specific area shielding should be used when radiation sensitive areas lie within or near _____ of the primary beam unless it obscures essential diagnostic information.
    2 inches
  45. Gus, a radiographer, is assigned to the fluoroscopy room for the day. The physician is performing an upper GI. In order to assist the pt and dr, Gus is standing off the left shoulder of the dr by approx 1-4 feet. His personnel monitor is under the lead apron. Which of the following is correct?
    Gus should be wearing his personnel monitor on the outside of his apron
  46. Which of the following is/are common cause/s of repeats?
    • Carlessness in positioning
    • Poor communication
    • Selection of incorrect exposure factors
  47. What is the whole body effective dose per year for the general public?
    .1 rem
  48. Which of the following is a process involving a direct conversion method, wherein a digital detector detects the radiation intensities transmitted through the patient which then are converted to a digital format?
    Digital radiography
  49. When using computed radiography, what is the minimum exposure of the IR in order for an accurate exposure index to be obtained?
  50. The invisible image is called:
  51. The 2 layered perotoneum adhering to the cavity wall is called?
    Parietal peritoneum
  52. Della, a patient with a possible perforated bowel caused by trauma enters the ER. The patient is unable to stand. Which projection would best demonstrate any possible free air within the abdomen?
    Left lateral decubitus
  53. An adult acute abdominal series includes:
    AP supine, AP upright, PA chest
  54. Which of the following kV would be best for an abdominal radiograph for an average patient?
    75 kV
  55. A radiograph of a supine KUB on a hyperstenic patient reveals that the symphysis pubis is cut off along the bottom of the radiograph. The top of the left kidney is also cut off along the top of the radiograph. What modifications does the tech need to make for the repeat radiograph?
    Use 2 14x17 cassettes crosswise , one centered lower and one centered higher.
  56. Where does the CR enter for a lateral dorsal decubitus?
    Midcoronal plane
  57. Which CR should be used for a dorsal decubitus projection of the abdomen?
    2 inches above the illiac crest
  58. In what order should Emily, an ambulatory patient, be givin an acute abdominal series?
    AP erect, PA chest, AP supine
  59. Which aspect of the large intestine is found between the cecum and right colic flexure?
    Ascending colon
  60. An abnormal accumulation of serous fluid constitutes a condition called?
  61. What is the umbrella shaped muscle seperating the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?
  62. Fiona, a 3 year old patient, comes to radiology for an abdomen study. Even with careful instructions and immobilization, the patient is having difficulty holding still. Which of the following should be done to minimize motion on the radiograph?
    Use shorter exposure time
  63. The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:
    Greater curvature of the stomach
  64. In which quadrant does the liver lie?
  65. The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the:
    Anterior superior illiac spine
  66. What is the minimum time a patient needs to be placed in a lateral decubitus poition before taking the exposure?
    5 minutes
  67. Which of the following is NOT a region of the abdomen?
    right ipsitrochanter
  68. Where are the supradrenal glands located?
    Superiomedial portion of the kidney
  69. KUB stands for:
    Kidneys, ureter, bladder
  70. What is the superior margin of the abdomen?
    Xiphoid tip
  71. An AP supine abdomen radiograph was taken on Gretal. You are evaluating the film and notice that the left illiac wing is elongated. In what direction did Gretal roll to cause this radiographic error?
  72. Which additional marker should a radiographer use on a 3 way acute abdominal series?
    upside marker
  73. Hannah, a pediatric patient, needs an acute abdomen series. The series includes:
    AP erect abdomen, AP supine abdomen
  74. If a person inhales a food particle, which bronchus is it most likely to enter?
    Right b/c it is wider and shorter
  75. The internal prominence or ridge where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the:
  76. Irene comes to the ER following a knife wound to the chest. A pneumothorax of the left lunf is suspected. What type of chest projection/s will best demonstrate the pneumothorax?
    PA inhalation and exhalation projections
  77. Which of the following anatomic structures are evaluated to determine rotaion on a PA chest radiograph?
    Symmetrical appearence of thr sternoclavicular joints
  78. A PA and lateral chest study reveals a suspicious mass located near the heart in the left lung. The radiologist would like a radiograph of the patient in an anterior oblique position to delineate the mass from the heart for better visulaization of the lung. Which position should the tech use to accomplish this objective?
    45 degree RAO
  79. A well inspired average adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of ____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm?
  80. A PA radigraph demonstrates the left sternoclavicular joint closer to the sternum than the right. Which of the following errors were involved?
    Rotaion into a LAO
  81. What is the primary disadvantage of performing a right lateral projection of the chest rather than a left lateral?
    Increased magnification of the heart
  82. The CR for an AP supine chest should be:
    • Centered to the level of T7
    • Centered 3-4 inches below jugular notch
    • Angled approx 5 degrees cauded
  83. To insure better lung inspiration during a chest x-ray, the exposure should be made on:
    second inspiration
  84. Jamie comes to the imaging department for a chest radiograph for basketball physicals. After processing his films you notice that his scapulae are in the lung field. What mistake was made?
    The shoulders were not rolled forward into correct position
  85. Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as:
  86. Which of the following would be the best device used for the PA lateral chest exam of pediatric patients?
  87. Where is the CR for a PA chest x-ray?
  88. The trachea is located where?
    Anterior to the esophagus
  89. What is the name of the spongy but elastic substance making up the lung?
  90. Kenny, a patient with a history of pulmonary edemacomes to the radiology department and is unable to stand. The physician suspects fluid in the right lung. Which specific position should be used to confirm this diognosis?
    Right lateral decubitus
  91. Which of the following factors must be observed to minimuze magnification of the heart?
    72 in SID
  92. Sufficient mAs on a PA chest radiograph would be demonstrated by which of the following:
    Vertebrae & posterior ribs seen throught the heart shadow & other midiastinal structures
  93. Which of the following is not a reason for doing an erect chest x-ray?
    To minimize breast shadows
  94. The laryngeal prominence is a positioning landmark located at the level of:
  95. What is the reccomended SID for the lateral sternum projection?
    72 in
  96. Jugular notch is located at what vertebral level?
  97. How much rotation and which oblique are required to best demonstate the left sternoclavicular joints?
    15 degrees LAO
  98. Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum?
  99. Why is the RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position?
    The RAO projects the sternum over the heart shadow
  100. Which 2 projections should be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?
    AP and LPO
  101. Where is the IR located for ribs under the diaphragm?
    Bottom of IR at the illiac crest
  102. The bony thorax is widest at:
  103. What is the CR for the lateral sternum?
    Midway between the jugular notch and xiphoid process
  104. Which ribs should be shown on an x-ray taken above the diaphragm?
  105. Which part of the rib contains blood vessels and nerves?
    costal groove
  106. where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints?
    3" distal of the vertebral prominens
  107. The costocartilage of which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle?
  108. Which ribs are considered to be true ribs?
  109. Ashley enters the ER with a fracture of the sternum. The patient is in great pain and the tests demonstrate that there is underlying cardiac injury. Which of the following caused this fx?
    Flail chest or Blunt trauma
  110. A radiograph of the upper ribs demonstrate that the diaphragm is superimposed over the 8th ribs, which is in the area of interest. The following factors were used for the initial exposure: 72 kV, 400 mA, 1/40 sec., 400 speed screen, grid, suspended respiration on expiration, erect position, 40 in SID. Which factor needs to be modified?
    Suspended respiration changed to inspiration
  111. What is the reccomended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for a thin patient?
    20 degrees
  112. In which direction does the diaphragm move on inspiration?
  113. Which end of the rib attaches to the thoracic bodies?
    vertebral end
  114. An ambulatory patient enters the ER with possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. A routine RPO should be taken b/c it removes what anatomical structure out of the way for better visulaization of the injured ribs?
    Spinous processes
  115. A radiograph of a RAO sternum reveals that the sternum is difficult to visualize b/c of excessive density. The following factors were used for this image: 70 kV, 25 mA, 6 sec., 40 in SID, Bucky, and 100 speed screens. Which of these factors should be modified during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?
    Decrease mA, Decrease time, Decrease mAs
  116. Where is the CR placed for an AP projection of the thumb?
    At the 1st metacarpophalangeal joint
  117. Which of the carpal bones is the smallest?
  118. Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the radius?
    Styloid process
  119. How many bones are found in the right wrist and hand?
  120. In a radiographic study of the forearm, the proximal radius crossed over the ulna in the frontal projection. Which specific positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
    PA was performed
  121. Which of the following is the joint between the distal radius and the ulna of the forearm?
    Distal radioulnar joint
  122. The Gaynor Hart Method projection is also called?
    Carpal Canal Tunnel of the wrist
  123. The ulnar deviation of the wrist best demonstrates:
  124. Why should the hand be slightly arched for a PA projection of the wrist?
    To reduce the OID of the carpal bones
  125. Connie has a colles fx reduced, and a large plaster cast placed on the upper limb. The orthopedic surgeon orders a post reduction study. The original technique, used before the cast placement involved, was 60 kV, 5 mAs. What new technique should be used with a wet plaster cast?
    68-70 kV or 10 mAs. (8-10 kV, 100% mAs)
  126. Which of the following is reccamended for the 4th digit of the hand?
    Lateromedial projection, mediolateral postion
  127. Which of the following should be demonstrated on an AP projection of the forearm?
    Forearm, 1-1 1/2" of the wrist and elbow joint
  128. How much angulation is required on an AP oblique projection-external rotation of the elbow?
    45 degrees
  129. A visible posterior fat pad on a well exposed, correctly positioned lateral elbow radiograph generally suggests:
    Positive elbow study for injury
  130. Where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the hand?
    At the 3rd metacarpaophalangeal joint
  131. Which of the following is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
  132. From a pronated position, which of the following is required for a PA oblique projection of the 4the digit of the hand?
    45 degree lateral rotation
  133. A good criterion for flexing the elbow 90 degrees for a lateromedial projection is?
    Formation of 3 concentric arches
  134. Which of the following is the basic routine for a forearm?
    AP & Lateral
  135. What are the 2 beak like processes located on the proximal ulna?
    Olecranon & Coronoid
  136. The joint found between the base of the 3rd metacaral and carpal bone is the:
  137. What is the name of the joint found between the proximal and distal phalanges of the first digit?
  138. What is the name of the deep depression found on the posterior aspect of the distal humerus?
    Olecranon fossa
  139. Which of the following is the CR for a fan lateral?
    2nd MCP joint
  140. How much should the CR be angled for a PA scaphoid projection of the wrist?
    10-15 degrees
  141. What type of transverse fx is typically seen in the 5th metacarpal?
  142. How should the CR be directed to an AP elbow non trauma?
  143. Andrea comes to the radiology department for a thumb she had broken while trying to do the hand jive while watching grease. Which of the following must be included on her radiographs?
    Phalanges, & metacarpal
  144. Chris comes to the ER with possible radial head fx. It is too painful for him to extend the elbow beyond 90 degrees or rotate the hand. What type of specialor optional projection could be performed on this pt to confirm the diagnosis without causing further discomfort?
    Coyle Method
  145. How many phalanx are in the 3rd digit?
  146. The scapulohumeral articulation between the glenoid cavity and the head of the humerus form a:
    Synovial joint
  147. An acromioclavicular dislocation from a fall is typically displaced:
  148. The recommended SID for AC joints is?
    72 inches
  149. Where is the CR for a transthoracic lateral projection?
    Level of the surgical neck
  150. The lower margin of the scapula is at the level of which rib?
  151. How much CR angulation should be used for a scapular Y projection?
    No CR angle should be used
  152. In the neutral rotation of the humerus for an AP projection the epicondyles are:
    Angled 45 degrees
  153. How much angualtion is used on an AP axial projection of the clavicle?
    15-30 cephalad
  154. A radiograph for an AP projection with external rotation of the proximal humerusreveals that the greater tubercle is visible. What should be changed to improve this image for a repeat exposure?
    Positioning is acceptable; dont repeat it
  155. Which AP projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by placing the affected palm of the hand against the thigh?
    Neutral rotaion
  156. What is the name of the process that extends anteriorly from the scapula?
    Coracoid process
  157. Which of the following is the correct breathing instruction for an AP projection of the clavicle?
    Suspend at the end of inspiration
  158. A pt enters the ER with multiple injuries including a possible fx to the left proximal humerus. Which postioning rotation should be performed to determine the extent of the humerus injury?
    AP neutral rotaion and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder
  159. What type of breathing technique is required for a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder?
    Short shallow breaths
  160. Which of the following bones make up the shoulder girdle?
    Clavicle and scapula
  161. Where is the CR centered for a bilateral AC joint projection on a single 14x17 image receptor?
    Midline 1" above jugular notch
  162. What is the name of the joint between the 2 bones of the shoulder girdle?
    Acromioclavicular joint
  163. A lateral projection of the scapula with the elbow flexed and the hand placed behind the patients back will best demonstrate:
    Acromian & coracoid processes
  164. Where is the CR centered for an AP scapula?
    2" inferior to corocoid process & 2" medial from the lateral border of the patient
  165. Which of the following joints is considered to have a spheroidal type of movement?
    Scapulohumeral joint
  166. What is another name for the intertubercular groove tangenital projection?
  167. The female clavivle is ___&___than a male
    Shorter & less curved
  168. Which term describes the medial end of the clavicle?
    Sternal extremity
  169. What is the largest and longest bone of the upper limb?
  170. The function of the clavicle and scapula is to connect each upper limb to the:
    Axial skeleton
  171. 95% of shoulder dislocations are:
  172. Bill presents with shoulder pain and a history of chronic dislocation of the shoulder. The radiologist want the tech to take an AP projection of the shoulder. What should the tech avaoid?
    Rotating the arm
  173. Which projection of the shoulder requires that a horizontal CR be directed 25-30 degrees medially and enter the axilla & humeral head of the affected arm?
    Lawerence method (Inferiosuperior axial projection)
  174. What is the name of the joint located between the sternum and clavicle?
  175. With reference to the place of the IR, how should the humeral epicondyles be positioned for the AP projection of the shoulder in internal rotation?
  176. A radiograph for an AP clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What shlould the tech do?
    Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation
  177. Which of the followinf places the shoulder and entire humerus in true anatomic position?
  178. A lateral position-LAO: scapula requires how much obliquity of the patient in order to visualize the body of the scapula?
    45 degrees
  179. Which of the following structures is not part of the proximal humerus?
    Glenoid process
  180. The supraspinous fossa and infraspinous fossa is seperated by:
    Crest of the spine
  181. The upper margin of the scapula is located at:
    2nd posterior rib
Card Set
Positioning Final
Positioning Final