A 2, 3 and 4 B All of them C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and3
D
3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers B Market rate C Cost-plus D Profitable
B
4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification B. Security C. Reliability D. Maintainability
A
5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money B Be as high level as possible C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held D Vary according to cost
A
6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager B Capacity Manager C Change Manager D Financial Manager
C
7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction B Incident volume reduction C Elimination of lost incidents D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
B
8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management B Service Level Management C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management. D Change & Capacity Management
A
9. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services B Increased visibility and communication of changes C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
A
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing B Education and Awareness C Review, Audit and Assurance D Ongoing Training and Testing
A
11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager 2 Customer representatives 3 Change Manager 4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only B All of them C 1, 2 &4 D 1, 3 &4
B
12. Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
A 1, 2 & 4 B 2 & 3 C All of them D None of them
A
13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
C
14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
C
15. What is SOA within Availability Management?
B
16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
C
17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
D
18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
B
19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
D
20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
In which order should the above activities be taken?
C
21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuouslyimprove on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
A
22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
D
23. Which of the following statements is true?
B
24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A
25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
B
26. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
D
27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A
30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
D
31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
C
32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is noreliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information
C
33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
B
34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
D
35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
B
36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
B
37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
C
38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
B
39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
D
40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
D
1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
B)
2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?
D)
3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
C)
4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
D
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by Service Design
B
6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
D)
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
B
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
B)
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service Operation?
B)
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
D)
11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
B)
12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning
D
13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
A)
14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?
D)
15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
A)
16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
D)
17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?
A)
18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
D)
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
A)
20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?
B)
21. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured.
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
B)
22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?
B)
23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?
D)
24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
A)
25. Facilities Management refers to?
A)
26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
A)
27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
C)
28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
A)
29. Functions are best described as?
B)
30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
D)
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
C)
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
C)
33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
B)
34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?
C)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
C)
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
C)
37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
A)
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
C)
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
A)
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
B)
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
A.
2. Major Incidents require?
A.
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A.
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A.
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes: How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
B.
6. Consider the following statements:
1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
D.
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
D.
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service
A
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
C.
12. The Design Manager is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities included in this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes
B
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
A.
14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
D.
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?
A.
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A.
17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A.
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
D
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
B.
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user’s PC replaced within three hours?
B.
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
C
22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this?
B.
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?
C.
24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
C.
25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
D.
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
D.
27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A.
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
B.
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A.
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities’.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved
A
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
C.
32. Which of the following will complete the Four P’s of Service Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
C.
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
B.
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
D.
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
B.
36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
C.
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without interruption
A
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
D.
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process?
C.
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
