MT 1 Final

  1. The KNOWN microbe in your unknown broth stains as a _?_ on the ES.
    Negative Cocci
  2. Non-fermenting enterics produce acid so their colonies are _?_ on Mac Conkeys agar.
  3. The Enterotube II testing system should be used to test which of the following microbes?
    GM (-), Oxidase (-) Rods
  4. Making a LAWN means:
    Growth on a plate covers the entire surface.
  5. A nutrient gelatin tube that has been inoc and incub for 8 days is considered a SLOW (+) for Gelatin hydrolysis if it appears liquid upon removal from the incubator. T or F?
  6. Sulfanilic acid is used in the Nitrate broth tests to detect nitrate reduction. T or F?
  7. Ferric chloride is utilized as a reagent in the _?_ test.
    Phenylalanine agar
  8. B-galactosidase production is detected by all of the following tests except the _?_ test.
    Sprit Blue Agar (lipid test).
  9. 2,3 Butanediol is produced in the _?_ test.
    Acetoin / VP
  10. Kovac's Reagent is used in the _?_ test.
    Indole / Tryptophanase test
  11. Which of the following is mismatched?
    Mesophile - microorganisms growing better at 50C

    (Mesophile grows better at 21-40C)
  12. Cytochrome C has a respiratory enzyme detected by a positive _?_ test.
  13. A _?_ zone around the colony indicates a pos result in the starch hydrolysis plate tests after adding Iodine soln.
  14. A _?_ zone around the colony indicates a pos result in the fat hyrolysis agar plate test.
    Clearing or lightening
  15. When performing the Kirby-Bauer Anitbiotic Disc test you must first pour and cool a Nutrient Agar plate. The next step is to:
    Cover the surface of the agar completely w/your unknown microbe.
  16. A neg Nitrate Test is:
    After reagents = no color + after Zinc = pink or red.
  17. Inoc incub Urea broth is _?_ and about pH 9.
    Hot Pink (basic)
  18. The typed section of your unknown paper where your procedures are detailed is the _?_ section.
  19. The _?_ broths are all the same red color when neg and before inoc but each may contain a diff nutrient.
    Phenol sugar / salt
  20. A pos Simmon's Citrate has a _?_ pH
  21. A salmon-colored urea broth has a pH of about _?_.
  22. The pos color of a dextrose pos in the Kligers test is:
    Yellow BUTT
  23. A Spirit Blue Agar deep being melted in a boiling water bath is _?_ when it is ready to pour into a sterile petri dish.
    Clear Blue
  24. A yellow Methyl Red Broth (that has been properly inoc and incub for 7 days) is read as:
  25. A mixed acid producer from glucose is indicated by a pos _?_ test.
    MR (Methyl Red)
  26. Bacteria as expression systems are disadvantageous because they _?_.
    Do not make proteins that work well in eukaryotes.
  27. Transgenic organisms are eukaryotic organisms that contain human DNA. T or F?
  28. Conjugation has had the most effect on the evolution of _?_.
    GM (-) eubacteria
  29. Photolase is present in what Repair System?
    Light Repair
  30. Which DNA repair system cuts and re-synthesizes the side of the DNA molecule that has mutations?
    Dark Repair
  31. Which DNA repair system "pops-out" thymine dimmers?
    Light Repair
  32. The process of changing food into energy for use by the cell is best known as _?_.
  33. Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
    Need replacement after use
  34. What is the energy source for photosynthesis in photosynthetic plants?
    wave-lengths of around UV/purple/blue/green
  35. What is not true of respiration chemical rxn?
    They are synthesis rxn
  36. What is def of Allosteric site?
    Any site on an enzyme other than the active site
  37. A microbiologist is studying the behavior of a hydrolytic enzyme found in E. coli. This enzyme is active in the presence of lactose @ 38 C and pH 7.0. How to decrease the enzymes activity?
    Incubate the medium to 42 C.
  38. Allosteric noncompetitive inhibition is accomplished by _?_.
    Altering the shape of the active site.
  39. Transgenic technology includes all of the following except _?_.
    Human insulin production
  40. What is the gene that codes for Transacetylase known as?
    Gene A
  41. Trasposition is a method of horizontally moving DNA What is required?
    A Plasmid
  42. What moves the MOST DNA?
    Artificial Transformation / Electroporation
  43. What is NOT a reason that Genetic Engineers mention when they explain why they prefer to utilize transgenic animals instead of genetic engineered plasmids/bacteria in manufactoring human proteins?
    Moving a prokaryotic gene into a fertilized eukaryotic egg is easy.
  44. The Ames test searches for _?_.
  45. Which test must have the inoculum taken from a Kliger's slant?
  46. Barritts Reagents are used in the _?_ test.
  47. The incomplete fxning enzyme molecule is known as:
  48. Describe a smooth edge of a colony growing on agar.
  49. A pos result on the _?_ test results in the production of Keto Acid.
    Phenylalanine Deaminase / PA
  50. These microbes have LYSINE as one of their cell wall cross-linking tetra-peptides.
    GM (+)s
  51. There are _?_ general catagories of GM Stain.
  52. The Mycobacteria have a _?_ peptidoglycan layer.
  53. There are _?_ Kingdoms at the university level.
  54. Photosynthesis in bacteria takes place in the _?_ organelle.
    Golgi ( cellular membrane = chromatophore)
  55. Which of the following is NOT a result of heat fixing a slide when preparing it for staining?
    To make the microbe take-up the stain.
  56. Who established the Binomial Nomenclature or scientific naming?
  57. Where does Translation occur in the 2-step protein synthesis?
  58. How many levels of organization and is the MOST important of a protein?
    4; 3rd.
  59. Which organelle assembles the COMPLEX proteins?
    Bound Ribosomes
  60. Which organism uses carbon dioxide to synthesize organic molecules?
  61. Photoreduction is:
    Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
  62. In Griffiths transformation experiments, which did not take place?
    Dead, smooth pneumooccci had no effect on mice.
  63. The elevation of a colony growing on agar and appears similar to be a nipple in shape is called:
  64. Oragnisms which get their carbon from other organisms are:
  65. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from:
    Chemical rxns in their cytoplasm.
  66. Coenzymes are _?_ molecules, Cofactors are _?_ molecules
    Organic; Inorganic
  67. Competitive inhibition of enzymes occurs when:
    The inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme
  68. What is part of enzyme inhibition?
    Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site.
  69. Which is mismatched?
    NADPH - Krebs cycle
  70. In glycolysis, glucose produces how many pyruvate acid?
  71. The end product of glycolysis is:
    a 3 carbon compound and pyruvic acid.
  72. Which of the counting techniques doesn't indicate a culture of live or dead bacteria cells?
    Optical Density
  73. Organisms that can use oxygen for metabolic rxn but can also fxn devoid of oxygen are:
    Facultative ANaerobes
  74. What is not analogous to sugar splitting?
    Chemiosmosis (ATP formation and electron transport across cell membrane)
  75. In fermentation rxn occuring in yeast to produce wine, two products of the rxn are:
    Carbon dioxide; ethyl alcohol
  76. What is true about fermentation?
    All fementation of glucose begins w/pyruvic acid as a substrate
  77. In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is:
  78. Which counting techniques relies on statistical estimation?
    Most Probable Number (MPN)
  79. Most bacteria:
    Do not immediately increase in number when placed in a culture.
  80. An obligate hypersychophile would produce a turbid culture at:
    5 C
  81. What microbe may have evolved to live in lrg intestines where there is complete void of free O2?
    Facultative Anaerobe
  82. Halophiles require an environment w/high conc of:
  83. All of the following are ways microorganisms adapt to limited nutrients except:
    Synthesize increased amount of enzymes for uptake and metabolism of limited nutrients.
  84. A culture that contains only a single species of organism is a:
    Pure culture.
  85. Streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating indv bacterical cells from one another by:
    Dragging them across a solid surface.
  86. A growth medium consisting of only g/ml amounts of water, magnesium, calciumm chloride, potassium and glucose would be considered:
    A Defined synthetic medium
  87. A growth medium consisting of water, glucose and beef extract would be considered:
    A Complex medium
  88. A living, growing culture whose purpose is to maintain a pure culture of an organism indefinitely is a:
    Stock culture
  89. What is true about genetic code?
    An amino acid can be specified for by more than one codon.
  90. Segments for DNA that do not code for proteins are:
    Interons (non-sense/garbage)
  91. During DNA replication:
    The lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction.
  92. In an enzyme catalyzed rxn that displays feedback inhibition:
    Excess product will inhibit the rxn.
  93. Currently, sulfur bacteria are capable of:
    Carrying out photosynthesis
  94. The initial breakdown of glucose in eukaryotic cells takes place in the:
  95. Neutral Red is colorless at _?_ pH.
    Less than 6.8
  96. Organisms that produce and secrete the extracellular enxymes oligo-1, 6-gluosidase & alpha-amylase are able to breakdown _?_.
  97. What is not an electron acceptor for ANAEROBIC respiration?
  98. What is returned to cholorphyll in cyclic photophosphorylation that is not returned in noncyclic photoreduction?

    (the difference between cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation)
  99. Coliforms are not:
  100. In photosynthesis, chemical energy is used to make organic molecules in the:
    Dark Rxn
  101. Usually the lactose _?_ are considered DANGEROUS or disease-causing.
  102. Which test is useful for separating GM (+) pathogenic and non-pathogenic cocci?
    Mannitol Salt Agar
  103. Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts PABA to folic acid, preventing the production of folic acid and eventually purine synthesis. In this case, the sulfa drug is acting as a:
    Competitive Inhibitor
  104. This microbe is utilized by public health authorities as an INDICATOR of contamination or pullution.
    Escherichia coli
  105. What shows a fermentation rxn has taken place in the media?
    Acidic pH
  106. Which test has 3 pH colors?
    Litmus milk
  107. Which test is Tryptophanalase present as a pos result?
  108. What Oxidase procedure is recommended by your instructor?
    Drop 1-3 drops of oxidase reagent down an old slant growth of unknown and look for brief color change.
  109. A GREAT text reference for ANY unknown (it is especially good for GM(+)s) identification which utilizes many keys and latest scientific names is the:
    Jean McFadden Biochemical Test for the Identification of Medical Bacteria.
  110. A bacteria that is TRANSFORMED:
    Has aquired naked DNA from the environment.
  111. Pyruvic acid is metabolized in the absence of O2 during the process of:
  112. A thioglycollate broth that has been properly inoc and incub w/unknown and has cloudiness in EQUAL portions THROUGHOUT the ENTIRE tube is:
  113. Enterobacter aerogenes may show a hot pink on MacConkey agar. What test would you select to prove that your unknown is really E. aerogenes and not something similiar?
  114. What color does Lactose Non-fermenting microbes produce on EMB agar.
  115. Catalase breaks down H202 to H20 and __.
  116. As CO2 accumulates in this test medium, it reacts w/NA ions and H20 to produce alkaline compounds like sodium carbonate, resulting in a color change in the agar. Which test medium is being described?
  117. This test allows the detection of late or lazy lactose fermenters.
  118. The regent d-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is used in which test?
    Indole (d-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde = Kovacs Reagent)
  119. What shape is Staphylococcus?
    Cocci in GRAPE-like clusters
  120. A pinkish orange PR Mannitol broth containing a durnam that has been properly inoc and incub for 7 days should be:
    Recorded as a Negative.
  121. After recording a pos test tube of unknown, you should:
    Remove the marks + tape and place it in the discard rack to be autoclaved.
Card Set
MT 1 Final
MT Questions