OB

Fathers who smoke can contribute to decreased birth weight in their infants.

T/F
True False

2. In addition to syphilis and gonorrhea, prenatal laboratory work usually includes tests for which of these infectious diseases?

3. Which of these terms would the nurse use when describing the fertilized ovum prior to implantation?

4. The nurse explains to the prenatal client that the implantation of the fertilized ovum begins on approximately what day after conception?

5. Functions of the placenta include serving as:

6. Upon examination, a normal umbilical cord should contain:

7. A father asks when his baby’s heart will start beating. The nurse should tell the father the primitive heart begins to beat at which of these times after conception?

8. A pregnant client expresses concern that she will develop varicose veins toward the end of her pregnancy. The nurse should recognize that varicose veins are result of:

9. Normal physiologic changes of pregnancy include which of the following/-

10. At 34 weeks gestation, a normal prenatal client should have a hematocrit of:-

11. At her first prenatal visit a client discusses how her breasts have changed since she became pregnant. What are the normal breast changes that occur during the first trimester?

12. A prenatal client expresses concern about the irregular brown spotted areas she has recently noticed on her forehead and around her eyes. What should the nurse tell the client about the name and nature of these changes?

13. When a primigravida comes for her 20-week prenatal visit, which of these presumptive signs of pregnancy would the nurse expect the client to report?-

14. In addition to auscultation of fetal heartbeat and visualization of the fetus, which of these is a positive sign of pregnancy?

15. At her 36 weeks gestation prenatal visit, a client complains of backaches and an “unstable” sensation in the pelvis. The nurse should explain to the client that these are normal discomforts of pregnancy primarily due to:

16. The obstetrician performed a vaginal examination on a client in her third trimester and gave a sudden push on the cervix. Later, the client asks the nurse what procedure was and why it was done. The MOST appropriate response from the nurse would be:

17. Which of these terms describes the development task of pregnancy that occurs as the mother incorporates the growing fetus into her body image?

18. A client’s last menstrual period began on July 13. Using Naegal’s rule, the nurse calculates the client’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) as:

19. A client’s fundal height has increased 4 cm since her last prenatal exam 1 month ago. The nurse should recognize that this measurement indicates:

A client at 30 weeks gestation asks about her alloweable weight gain for the remainder of her pregnancy. The client’s pre-pregnancy weight is 100 lbs. and she currently weighs 125 lbs. A weight gain of how many pounds would be the most acceptable?

21. A client of normal pre-pregnancy weight asks what her total weight gain during the pregnancy should be. The MOST appropriate answer from the nurse is:

22. A prenatal Pap smear is done on cervical secretions to diagnose which of these conditions?-

23. Assessment of fetal position is routinely performed during a client’s prenatal visits using:

24. During a physical examination, the fetal heart rate is considered to tachycardia. The nurse knows that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic will display how beats per minute?

25. A client asks why she must provide a urine specimen at each of her prenatal visits. The nurse should explain that it is necessary to:

26. A nurse should instruct a prenatal client to repost any warning signs during pregnancy, such as:\

27. In addition to telling the client to report any warning signs, a nurse should provide anticipatory guidance for pregnant client that includes which of these topics?

28. Which of the following factors place at woman at risk of nutritional inadequacy during her pregnancy?-

29. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she is having leg cramps. Which of these suggestions should the nurse offer?

30. A pregnant client tells that nurse “I don’t know what’s the matter with me. I am happy about my pregnancy but seem to cry a lot.” Which of these responses should the nurse make?

31. A client’s last menstrual period began on June 16. Using Naegele’s rule, the nurse calculates the client’s estimated date of delivery (EDD) as:

32. Which of the following is NOT considered a general high-risk factor in a pregnant client?

33. A pregnant client has a nonstress test (NST) that is “nonreactive.” The nurse should recognize that this means:

A high-risk client in labor is having electronic fetal monitoring (EFM). Which of these interpretations should the nurse recognize as normal, requiring no intervention?

35. A 17-year-old primigravida client is admitted to the hospital at 15 weeks gestation with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidum. The nurse should recognize that this condition can have which of these consequences?

36. The nurse is explaining fetus viability to a client considering terminating her pregnancy. The nurse explains that a fetus us usually considered viable and can survive with medical interventions at how many weeks?

37. A new client is admitted with vaginal bleeding and cramping at 12 weeks gestation. A vaginal examination reveals her cervix is partially dilated. The client appears to be experiencing which type of spontaneous abortion?

38. What is the treatment of choice for a newly pregnant woman whose pregnancy history includes habitual abortions as the result of an incompetent cervix?

39. A client states that she may have appendicitis because she started having pains in her side last week, and it is becoming progressively more severe. During the nursing assessment, the client tells the nurse she missed her period a month ago and has experienced nausea and breast tenderness. The nurse should report this information to the health care provider immediately , because the client may have developed which of these complications?

40. A client is admitted at 18 weeks gestation with a probable diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. Her signs and symptoms include high-serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), uterine enlargement greater than expected for the estimatedgestational period, and vaginal bleeding. For the client’s nursing diagnosis of Fear related to the possible development of choriocarcinoma, which of these nursing interventions is appropriate?

41. A client has painless vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation and is scheduled for an ultrasound to confirm a diagnosis of placenta previa. In addition to monitoring the client’s vital signs and fetal heart rate, nursing management of this client would include?

42. Which of these obstetrical problems may precipitate a client developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

43. A client a with mild preeclampsia is ordered to stay in bed rest at home, lying on either side. Why is client teaching essential to improve her compliance with this plan of care?

44. A 35-year-old gravid V para IV is admitted at 36 weeks gestation with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. She is started on magnesium sulfate IV. Which of these signs would indicate to the nurse that the client has developed magnesium sulfate toxicity?

45. When a client undergoing treatment for severe preeclampsia complains of epigastric pain, the nurse should notify her health care provider immediately because the client is:

46. When a client is being treated with magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, which of these drugs must be kept in a syringe at the client’s bedside ready for administration if signs of magnesium toxicity are noted?

47. When a pregnant woman with phenylketonuria (PKU) has a poorly regulated phenylalaine level, it causes an increase in the incidence of which condition in the fetus or neonate?

48. To prevent fetal infection, a cesarean birth is required for the pregnant client who is infected with which of these organisms at the time of delivery?

49. In which of these situations can Rh incompatibility develop?

50. A pregnant client is admitted at 36 weeks gestation with documented uterine contractions, ruptured membranes, and a 5cm cervical dilation. The nurse should anticipate the health care provider wil:

51. A client in scheduled for amniocentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the client for the procedure?

52. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas possible pre-term complications to the fetus include:

53. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas post-term complications to the fetus include:

54. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas a positive Group-B Strep (+GBS) will require:

55. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas the benefits of Lamaze are:

56. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas the possible causes of a pregnant client less than 37 weeks having 4 contractions in 1 hour may be caused by:

57. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas a baby born jaundice is due to a breakdown of or immature red blood cells (RBC) leading to yellowing of the skin. Possible complications of a baby being born jaundice include:

58. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas Lamaze teaches and encourages the following breathing techniques during delivery:

59. The following are signs and symptoms of abortion:

60. A patient who is a mother of a 5-year-old son and is now pregnant again should be classified as:

61. One of the earliest presumptive signs of pregnancy is:

62. A couple planning their first pregnancy asks the nurse about the accuracy of home pregnancy tests. The nurse replies “home pregnancy tests are widely used today.” However, it is most important that prospective parents.

63. For better accuracy the suspected pregnant client should be given the following instructions by the nurse:

64. Which of the following are the most common reasons for why a pregnant client does not seek

65. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for HELLP syndrome (aka Hemolytic Anemia-Elevated Liver Enzymes-Low Platelet Count). The nursing interventions for this client should include which of the following

66. A client with diabetes gives birth to a 9-lb, 10-oz neonate at 38 weeks. The neonates glucose serum will be assessed immediately after birth

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True False

67. The nurse is assisting in monitoring a client who is receiving oxytocin (pitocin) to induce labor. The nurse should be alert that it may adversely affect the maternal client’s status by possibly leading to hypertension, tachycardia, and fluid overload.

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True False

68. The nurse is collecting data on a client in labor. The nurse notes that the fetal heart rate is 110 beats/minute and classified as a “bradaycardic fetal heart rate.”

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True False

69. The nurse is assisting in the labor and delivery room. The physician makes an incision in the client’s perineum to enlarge to vaginal opening and facilitate delivery. The nurse documents in the client’s chart that this procedure is termed “episiotomy.”

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True False

70. A primigravida client experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. It is the nurse’s responsibility to immediately check fetal heart rate to detect changes associated with prolapsed or compression of the umbilical cord.

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True False

71. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas ann OB-GYN Clinic must meet the “gold standards” established by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) to receive accreditation.

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True False

72. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas a Fetal Kick Count (FKC) is performed at 28 weeks and 15 minutes after the client eats her evening meal. A normal FKC must be equal to or greater than 10 kicks per hour.

t/f
True False

73. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas the first OB appointment will consist of a (1) pap smear (2) breast exam (3) Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) (4) urinalysis

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True False

74. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas the following OB appointments will include (1) blood pressure (BP) measurement (2) urinalysis (3) client’s weight

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True False

75. According to Mrs. Barbara Mafnas recent research indicates that a pregnant client who smokes cigarettes causes increased risk of a sexually transmitted disease (STD) to the fetus

T/F
True False