Practice questions for exam 2

All of the following are likely to cause respiratory alkalosis EXCEPT:
A. a severe anxiety state
B. a drug overdose that causes respiratory depression
C. a severe pain
D. hyperventilation

Interpret the following set of arterial blood gases (ABGs) in terms whether it indicates acidosis, alkalosis, with a metabolic or respiratory cause, and whether they are uncompensate, partially compensated, or fully compensated.

pH = 7.14
PCO2 = 78 mm Hg
HCO3 = 24 mEq/L
BE = +2 mEq/L

A. uncompensated metabolic acidosis
B. partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D. uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Interpret the following set of ABGs in terms whether it indicates acidosis, alkalosis, with a metabolic or respiratory cause, and whether they are uncompensated, partially compensated, or fully compensated.

pH = 7.35
pCO2 = 60 mm Hg
HCO3 = 34 mEq/L
BE = + 7 mEq/L

A. fully compensated respiratory acidosis
B. fully compensated metabolic acidosis
C. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
D. partially compensated respiratory acidosis

Which of the following cause an elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis?

a. elevated serum chloride
b. lactic acidosis
c. loss of bicarbonate ions caused by diarrhea
d. vomiting of gastric fluid

Interpret the following set of ABGs in terms whether it indicates acidosis, alkalosis, with a metabolic or respiratory cause, and whether they are uncompensated, partially compensated, or fully compensated.

pH = 7.10
pCO2 = 26 mm Hg
HCO3 = 12 mEq/L
BE = -8 mEq/L

A. uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C. partially compensated metabolic acidosis
D. partially compensated respiratory acidosis

A positive base excess value, such + 18 mEq/L, is most likely to be present in a patient who has:

A. renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis.
B. uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
C. renal compensation for respiratory acidosis.
D. uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

During alkalosis:

A. there is no change in the plasma level of free, ionized calcium.
B. fewer hydrogen ions bind to plasma proteins and more calcium ions bind to plasma proteins resulting in an decreased level of free, ionized calcium.
C. there is decreased neuromuscular excitability.
D. more hydrogen ions bind to plasma proteins and fewer calcium ions bind to plasma proteins resulting in an increased level of free, ionized calcium.

Anaphylactoid reactions differ from anaphylactic reactions because anaphylactoid reactions:

A. do not involve the release of histamine from mast cells.
B. cause bronchoconstriction but not hypotension.
C. do not require a sensitization period.
D. never result in death.

Type III hypersensitivity reactions:

A. are involved in the pathophysiology of systemic lupus erythematosus.
B. involve formation of immune complexes (complexes of antigens and antibodies).
C. involve activation of complement proteins.
D. all of the above.

The most common clinical findings at the time that systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is
diagnosed are:

A. an opportunistic infection and leukopenia.
B. multiple organ failure and leukocytosis.
C. decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and fever.
D. a photosensitive rash and arthritis or arthralgia.

Which of the following statements about the life cycle of the human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) is FALSE?

A. The reverse transcriptase enzyme of HIV is necessary for HIV to replicate.
B. HIV is a DNA virus and must convert its DNA to human RNA in order to replicate.
C. HIV attaches to and infects human cells that contain the CD4 receptor.
D. HIV infects helper T cells, macrophages, glial cells, and dendritic cells.

The ELISA and western blot tests for HIV infection:

A. detect the CD4 receptor for HIV.
B. detect the GP120 produced by HIV.
C. detect antibodies produced against HIV.
D. are more accurate for detecting the presence of HIV than the PCR test.

The presence of which of the following is an indication that an adult with HIV infection has
progressed to having AIDS?

A. Serum CD4 T cell count of 600/mm3
B. the flu
C. P. jiroveci pneumonia (formerly called pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)
D. all of the above

When a newborn has a primary immunodeficiency disorder affecting the humoral immune
system, they will:

A. have a defect in B lymphocyte production of one or more types of immunoglobulins.
B. have defective T lymphocytes.
C. always have serious infections that develop immediately after birth.
c. have no macrophages.

All of the following are consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis EXCEPT:

A. acetone odor to the breath
B. plasma glucose = 800 mg/dl
C. normal serum osmolality
D. pH = 7.1

Appropriate immediate treatment for an unconscious person with serious hypoglycemia
resulting from an overdose of insulin is administration of:

A. a slowly absorbed protein, such as that found in red meat.
B. an injection of glucagon.
C. orange juice.
D. an injection of a drug that blocks beta receptors.

A hemoglobin A1c (glycosylated hemoglobin) level of 6% in a diabetic individual:

A. indicates poor glycemic control over the past 2 months.
B. indicates good glycemic control over the past 2 months.
C. indicates that hyperglycemia occurred approximately 6 months ago.
D. is the highest level that glycosylated hemoglobin can reach.

Which of the following is a volatile acid produced in the body?


A. lactic acid
B. pyruvic acid
C. carbonic acid
D. acetone