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In sytole, which valves are open / closed?
- 1. Mitral and tricuspid - closed
- 2. Aortic and Pulmonic - open
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Major hearts are caused by?
Valve Closure
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Contraction of the ventricles causes?
1. Closure of AV valves
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1. S1 is caused by.....
2. Initiates.....(Systole or Diastole)
3. And heard loudest at.....
1. Caused by AV valve closure
2. Systole
3. the Apex (mitral); "lub"
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1. S2 is caused by...
2. Initiates.....(Systole or Diastole)
3. And heard loudest at....
1. Aortic and Pulomonic Valve closure
2. Diastole
3. base (Aortic) "dub"
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Identify the location of the 5 listening areas of the heart?
- Aoritic (Base)-2nd ICS on R Sternal Borde
- Pulmonic-2nd ICS on L Sternal Border
- Erbs Point-3rd ICS on L Sternal Border
- Tricuspid - 4th ICS on Sternal Border
- Mitral(Apex)- 5th ICS on L Mid clavicular line
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If there is an S3 does it occur in systole or diastole
Early Diastole
Due to decreased elasticity from overfilling of ventricle - associated with CHF. "Ketucky"
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S4 Happens when?
Associated with?
Sounds like?
Late Diastole
Due to stiff ventricles, HTN, CAD, LVH
Sounds like "Tenessee"
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Where is the PMI?
L ICS MCL
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Murmurs are heard through?
Closed Valves - Regurgitation
-
Stenosis is heard through
Open valves
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During Systole in which valves would you hear regurgitation / Stenosis
- Systole - Mitral Regurg
- Tricuspid Regurg
- Aortic Stenosis
- Pulmonic Stenosis
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During Diastole in which valves would you hear regurgitation / Stenosis
- Diastoley Mitral Stenosis
- Tricuspid Stenosis
- Aortic Regurg
- Pulmonic Regurg
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Pt in ER for poss MI; has family HX father died from heart trouble. What should you ask?
What age was your father at his time of death?
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2 types of body hair -
Vellus - downy body hair
Terminal - scalp hair
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Most comon sign of cardio vascular disease in older adults?
fatigue
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Apical PMI beyond 5th ICS may indicate?
Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
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Most prevalent heart sounds heard in aortic and pulmonic area is...
S2 - Valve closure of Aortic and pulmonic
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While doing pt cardiac assessment, notice a grade III murmur. The intensity is:
- a. Grade I Moderately loud
- b. Grade II- soft, readily detected
- c. Grade III
- c. Grade IV- loud and usually palpable
- d. Grade V- very loud
- e. Grade VI- heard w/o stethoscope
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Claudication (Intermittent)
Aching, cramping, and possibly numbness or severe fatigue that appear with walking and disappear promptly with rest typify intermittent claudication.
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79yo diabetic pt c/o claudication. Physical findings w/arterial occlusion:
Loss of hair over extremity; cool, shiny skin; pallor or cyanosis; thickened nails; pulses weak or absent; numb/cool temp; ulcers distal
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G(a)P(b,c,d,e)
- G=# of pregnancies
- P = Outcomes
- b = # of term
- c = # of preterm
- d = Aborted
- e = Full term
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Primary prevention focuses on?
- Primary prevention: focuses on preventing or slowing the onset of disease
- Examples include: counseling and education, immunizations, use of safety measures
-
Secondary preventions focuses on?
Secondary prevention: involves risk assessment and risk reduction for chronic diseases
All screening tests smoking cessation to reduce risk.
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Tertiary prevention involves?
Slowing or halting diseases that are already in progress.
-
US Preventative Services Task Force
- Graded:
- A - High certainty benefit
- B- Moderat certainty benefit
- C- Recommends AGAINST ROUTINE serv., benfit is small
- D- Recommends AGAINST Serv. Risks outweigh
- I - Insufficient evidence to determine
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What is Sensativity?
Sensitivity: The proportion of persons with a condition who correctly test positive when screened
Poor sensitivity will miss many cases
False-negative results
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What is Specificity?
Specificity: the proportion of persons without the condition who correctly test negative when screened
Poor specificity incorrectly labels persons as having condition
False-positive
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What does CAGE stand for?
Cut down, Annoyance, guilt, eye-opener
One study found 75% sensitivity and 96% specificity
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What are the stages of hypertension?
Normal <120 <80
Pre-HTN 120-139 80-89
Stage I 140-159 90-99
Stage II >160 >100
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When should you start Pap smear testing
Start Pap smearing testing 3 years after onset of sexual activity or age 21(USPTF).
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What is the PSA Cut point?
4 ng /ml
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What is the most superficial layer of skin?
Epidermis: Most superficial layer, thin, no blood vessels.
Dermis: Well supplied with blood. Contains connective tissue, the sebaceous glands, and some of the hair follicles.
Subcutaeous tissues: Fat and sweat glands, and remaining hair follicles.
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What is a Macule?
Macule: Flat, change in skin color. It is < 1 cm. (freckle)
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What is a Patch?
Patch: Larger than macule. >1 cm. (Vitiligo)
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What is a Papule?
Papule: Firm, raised, up to 1 cm (raised nevus)
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What is a Plaque?
Plaque: Flat, elevated surface, > 1 cm. (coalescence of papules)
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What is a nodule?
Nodule: >0.5 cm. Often deeper and firmer than papule.
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What is a tumor?
Tumor: Larger 1-2 cm. A large nodule.
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What is a Wheal?
Wheal: Transient, irregular, superficial area of localized skin edema. (hive, mosquito bite)
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What is a Vesicle?
Vesicle: Up to 1 cm. Filled with serous fluid.
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What is a Bulla?
Bulla: 1 cm or greater. Filled with serous fluid.
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What is a Pustule?
Pustule: Filled with pus. (Acne, impetigo).
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What is an erosion?
Loss of the epidermis
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What is Lichenification?
Lichenification: Thickening and roughening of the skin with increased visibility of the normal furrows, can be caused by scratching.(atopic dermatitis)
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What is skin atrophy?
Atrophy: Thinning of the skin with loss of furrows. Skin appears shiner and translucent. (arterial insufficiency)
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What is Eschar?
Eschar: Crust and necrosis.
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What is a Keloid?
Keloid: Raised, firm, thickened red scar that may grow for a prolonged period of time.
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What is a spider Angioma?
Spider angioma: Very small to 2 cm. Central body surrounded by radiating legs. Face, neck, arms, and upper trunk. (Liver disease, Vit. B def., pregnancy)
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What is a cherry angioma?
Cherry angioma: 1-3 mm, round, flat or sometimes raised. No clinical significance.
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What is a spider vein?
Spider vein: Blue in color, size varies. Legs and anterior chest. Accompanies increased pressure on superficial veins.
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What are petechia?
Petechia: 1-3 mm, emboli to skin
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What is Purpura?
Purpura: Larger than petechia, blood outside the vessels.
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What is Telangiectasias?
Telangiectasias: Chronic dilated small vessels, blanch minimally.
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What is a comedo?
Comedo:(closed) The common blackhead. (open) Whitehead
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What do constitutional symptoms in ROS refer to?
Symptoms that can be associated with multiple systems such as fever, chills, malaise, weightloss.
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1. What do the meibomian glans secrete?
What is an inflamation of the meibomian gland called?
1. Meibomian gland: glands that provide oils to the tear film
2. Chalazion - usually painless and points inside not on the margin of the lid.
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Describe:
Entropian eyelashes
Ectropion eyelashes
Entropion: inverted eyelashes
Ectropion: everted eyelashes
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An infection of the eyelash hair folicle is called?
Acute Hordeolum (STY) usually painful, looks like a pimple on the margin of the eye lid.
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What is (margninal)Blepharitis?
Blepharitis is an inflamation of the eyelids along the lid margins often with crusting or scales.
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Dacryocystitis is what?
Dacryocystitis - inflammation of lacrimal sac.
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Conjunctiva in two areas called?
Conjunctiva
Bulbar: covers most of anterior eyeball
Palprebral: lines the eyelids
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Pterygium
Pterygium - triangular thickening of the bulbar conjuntiva that grows slowly on the outer surface of the cornea - usually from the nasal side. May interfere with vision as it approaches the pupil.
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Pinguecula
Pinguecula - A yellowish, somewhat triangular nodule in the bulbar conjuctiva on either side of the iris. Harmless accumulation of protein.
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What does 20/20 mean?
- 20/20
- top #-patient distance from chart;
bottom #-distance at which normal eye can read
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Cataract-
A cataract is an opacity of the lens seen through the pupil.
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Accomodation when evaluating the eyes describes?
Accommodation:
Convergence of the eyes with constriction of the pupil when focused on a near object.
Dilation of the pupil when looking at a far object.
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Describe the direct and consensual reaction to light of the eyes?
Direct: pupillary constriction in the same eye
Consensual: pupillary constriction in the opposite eye
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Describe a the Weber Test?
Weber test - Strike tuning fork and place on top of head /forehead
Abnormal: “Positive Lateralization” > vibration in one ear over the other.
Conductive hearing loss- lateralization to “impaired” ear
Sensorineural loss- lateralization to “good” ear
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Describe the Rinne test?
Rinne test
Place vibrating tuning fork on mastoid
- Normal :AC>BC
- Conductive loss- sound through bone is as long or longer than through air. (BC=AC or BC>AC)
Sensorineural loss- sound is heard longer through air (AC>BC) (normal pattern prevails because the vibrations reach the cochlea)
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Cupping of the optic disc is a sign of...
Glaucoma
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What position is the cone of light in the right ear?
Cone of light (Right: 5 o’clock Left: 7o’clock)
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The cone of light eminates from what bone?
Umbo
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Describe Hyperthyroidism
Nervousness, weightloss with increased apetit, sweating and heat intolerence.
Hypertension, tachycardia, AFIB, warm moist skin.
Associatedwith GRAVES disease
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Describe HYPOthyroidism
Fatigue, lethargy, modest weigt gain with anorexia.
Dry course skin, cold intolerance. Hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia
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Describe the grading of Tonsils
Grading Scale
- Tonsil 0: Tonsils fit within tonsillar fossa
- Tonsil 1+: Tonsils <25% of space between pillars
- Tonsil 2+: Tonsils <50% of space between pillars
- Tonsil 3+: Tonsils <75% of space between pillars
- Tonsil 4+: Tonsils >75% of space between pillars
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Describe the order of a respiratory examination...
- 1. inspection
- 2. palpation
- 3. percussion
- 4. auscultation from the anterior, lateral and posterior approaches
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