Volume 4 Contigency Operations.txt

  1. In 1942, American forces took almost ____ months to gain control of ________. What disease and how many cases?
    5 mos....Guadalcanal; 60,000 case of malaria
  2. Merrill's Marauders fought in Japan. They started the mission with _____ men. By the eighth day, they lost ___ men to combat injurries and ____ to disease?
    started with 2,750; 45 men ; 136 to disease
  3. Merrill's Maruaders lost 262 men to combat related injuries and ____ to disability/died from disease during 58 days.
    438 disabled/died
  4. In Northern African deseret, German General Rommel did not learn from others mistakes. What did his camp suffer from?
    sanitation problems (exposed feces and garbage which led to a fly problem)
  5. The British and Americans moved into Genneral Rommel's abandoned site. How many British and Americans caught dysentery?
    1,000 British & Americans
  6. When the ____ ______ landed on the Siciliy shores, they had to leave ______ people behind due to what disease?
    7th Army ; 4,000 troops behind
  7. There was a total of ______ warfighters that contracted in Sicily.
    5,000 warfighters
  8. The 7th Army ran into malaria and another vector/vectorborne illness. What was it and how many cases were contracted?
    Sand flies; sand fly fever. A total of 8,500 cases were treated.
  9. During Vietnam, there were aprox ____ annual cases of _______ and _______ reported.
    10,000 cases; malaria and dengue
  10. MOOTWs typically invole:
    • Peace building: post conflict rebuilding of gov
    • Peace enforcement: compel compliance with resolutions
    • Peacekeeping: monitor and facilitate implementation of agreements
    • Humanitarian relief: operations
  11. During MOOTWs, we may work with what organizations?
    • NGO - Nongovernmental organizations
    • PVO - Private Volunteer organizations
  12. In regards to deployment planning - the medical service is responsible for what?
    planning and providing medical support necessary to sustain maximum combat capability and effectiveness under all conditions.
  13. This reference provides guidance on AF unique planning aspects for all types of operations. It gives the "big picture" of how PH fits into deployment planning.
    AFI 10-401 AF Operations Planning and Execution
  14. AF planning is accomplished in two ways. What are they?
    Deliberate planning & crisis action planning
  15. What is the definition of deliberate planning?
    Is conducted principally in peacetime and is accomplished in prescribed cycles that complement other DoD planning cycles.
  16. AFI 10-401 is one guidance for deployment planning; what are the others?
    Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD), the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), unit type codes (UTC) and table of allowance (TA)
  17. What does Joint Operation Planning and Exec. System (JOPES) establish?
    Policy, procedures and systems to be used in both deliberate and crisis action planning of JOINT operations. It is DoD directed.
  18. what is the wmp used for?
    It is a classified doc that provides air staff and af cc with current policies, planning factors, and forces for conducting and supporting wartime operations.
  19. The UTC has how many alphanumeric characters? Who is controlled by? What does it define?
    5 alphanumeric codes; controlled by the jcs; it identifies each type of armed forces
  20. Where are all af utcs approved found?
    War and mobilization plan
  21. Each utc listed contains what?
    The utc's mission capability statement as well as deployment characteristics of the utc in terms of personnel and cargo tonnage requiring transportation.
  22. What doea the example utc FFPM2 mean?
    The code is for preventive and aerospace medicine PAM team
  23. What is an allowance standard?
    It lists the logistical req. Necessary to support each utc in accomplishing its mission.
  24. An example of an allowance standard AS 902 column A lists what?
    Lists all equipment necessary for a decon team to be able to do its job
  25. What does AFI 10-2501, Full Spectrum Threat Response (FSTR) Planning do?
    Sets the req for each base to bave a plan to cope w/ disasters in peace or war
  26. What is the bases plan for disasters called?
    Base operations plan 32-1
  27. Areas of concern for disasters are?
    Situation, primary forces, assumptions, mission, execution, admin amd logistics, command and comm, annexes
  28. Area situation....
    Describes the most probable condition for implementing the plan
  29. Primary forces....
    Lists the specific tasks of friendly forces, commands or other gov agencies that directly support the plan
  30. Assumptions....
    List assumptions in the plan based on conditions likely to exist or that may have significant impact on mission operations
  31. Mission....
    State the basic task of and reason for using the plan
  32. Execution.....
    States actions needed to carry out the plan
  33. Admin and logistics.....
    States how logistic support is accomplished
  34. Command and comm.....
    Describes installation warning and notification sys and capabilities. Identify command and control relationship among participants tasked to carry out the plan. Gives a general description of.the scope and type of information sys.for.disaster operations
  35. Annexes.....
    The annexes the mtf.facility will deal with the most are: annex a, annex b, annex c, annex z
  36. Annex A is used for?
    Major Peacetime Accident
  37. What is Annex B used for?
    Natural Disaster
  38. What is Annex C used for?
    Enemy Attack
  39. What is Annex Z used for?
    Distribution, listing the required areas that must and should have copies of the Base OPlan
  40. Who has the responsibility for keeping medical information in the Base OPlan 32-1 current?
    Medical Readiness officer (MRO), medical readiness NCO (MRNCO) or medical readiness manger MRM
  41. Besides the OPlan, AFI 41-106 Medical Readiness Planning and Trainning outlines our responsibility to develop what?
    Medical Contigency Response Plan
  42. The Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP) must address.....?
    real/perceived peacetime threats to the base/community such as natural disasters, major accidents, and terrorism
  43. Who writes each annex in the MCRP?
    Each annex is written by the chief of the specific team (Example: Annex E designates the PH team chief, gives the team composistion and provides guidance).
  44. Who is usually the PH team chief, per Annex E in the MCRP?
  45. Medical Intelligence is....? (Category)
    category of intelligence concerned with factors affecting a person's capability and well being in a foreign environment (1-7)
  46. Medical Intelligence is information about?
    diseases, climatic conditions, and other health related environmental factors. Also includes, information about medical capabilities and research and development of other countries
  47. Most MI is obtained how?
    Directly from people
  48. Who appoints the MIO?
    MTF commander
  49. What AFI states a PHO should fill the MIO position?
    AFI 41-106, Medical Readiness Planning and Training.
  50. In the absence of the PHO who may be appointed?
    an NCO with appropriate experience or a 4EX01.
    prepare medical threat assessment, ensuring medical risks are included. Briefs Medical Unit Commander, deploying medical/line personnel. Verifies predeployment medical screening and immunization requirements
    MIO assists the unit commander in selecting the site for facility setup
  53. DURING DEPLOYMENT, the MIO must:
    • records and analyzes any incidences of disease, illness, injuries or other degradation to human peformance
    • MIO documents corrective actions taken and informs the MTF CC of any new medical threats
    • Compile AAR during: WRM supplies are used, personnel UTCs are deployed, involvement in higher headquarters or JCS exercises, national emergency, natural disaster, and armed conflict
    • Complete a medical intelligence questionnaire prepared by AFMIC
    • Summarize corrective measures i.e. TB skin test, post malaria meds
  55. When are AAR due to MAJCOM?
    30 days after return; forward copies to other appropriated agencies listed in AFI 41-106
  56. DNBI has historically accounted for ____% hospital admissions during wartime.
  57. What are the four types of disease that occur freq. in contingency operations?
    • 1. Diarrheal
    • 2. URI
    • 3. Skin
    • 4. Vectorborne
  58. Examples of diarrheal diseases are (4)
    Traveler's diarrhea, shigella, typhoid, giardia
  59. Diarrheal diseases are introduced during deployments, how?
    breakdown in personal hygiene, sanitation, food prep, water treatment
  60. For skin diseases, what is the number one cause?
    breakdown in personal hygiene and sanitation
  61. 3 Types of skin diseases
    fungus, dermatitis and even parasites
  62. If daily shower is not available, personnel are encouraged to clean the 5Fs....what are they?
    face, fingers, feet, fanny, and front
  63. While deployed, personnel are discouraged from wearing what?
    colognes and perfumes
  64. Examples of harzardous flora/fauna are
    rattlesnakes, black widows, centipedes, poison sumac, manchineel trees, bushmasters, scorpion
  65. Bees and wasps kill more Americans each year than snakes, spiders, scorpions, and centipede bites. T/F
  66. There are three keys to working with hazardous flora and fauna. They are?
    Recognition, avoidance, antivenins
  67. 4E051, CDC Vol 2, Disease Recognition and control is part of the recognition phase of hazardous f/f. What are it's contents?
    Basic fundamentals of disease recognition and control specifically the ento unit
  68. (Recognition phase of haz. f/f) MEDIC CD-Rom has what contents?
    contains many pubs/country profiles/color pics with scientific names of haz f/f
  69. AFP 64-4 Vol 1 Survivial Trng is part of the recognition phase of haz f/f. What's the contents?
    survival training outlining various climatic conditions, includes countermeasures
  70. The basics for avoidance of snakes, arthropods and plants is:
    mow vegetation, wear gloves when reaching under things, cover boots with socks when not worn, shake bedding, shake out clothing, roll down sleeves and flip collar, apply ppe
  71. Research for antivenins begins in ____?
  72. Another excellent antivenin source is
    Antivenins Around the World located on Armed Forces Pest Management Board
  73. Good personal hygiene is one of the most important countermeasures in the field. How is this accomplished?
    handwashing, oral hygiene, showering, foot care
  74. At a minimum, handwashing stations must be located:
    near latrines, at the entrances of food and in medical treatment facilities.
  75. Deployed personnel must bathe at least....
    once a week
  76. All shower facilities must have ?
    soakage pits underneath them
  77. Camp work details should be formed and instructed to clean and disinfect latrines with how much chlorine?
    100 ppm daily
  78. If a latrine accumulates dead skin, accumulation of moisture (like Desert Storm) it should be
    disassembeled, thoroughly cleaned, and treated for infestation.
  79. Moisture in socks does what?
    reduces their insulating quality
  80. During deployed operations, footcare is important (individuals are encouraged to):
    bring at least the minimum number of boot socks, keep socks clean and dry, change wet socks ASAP; wash feet daily, and allow to dry thoroughly, avoid tight socks/boots, use antiperspirants containing aluminum chlorhydrate or foot powder
  81. As a minimum during deployment, PH should be included in?
    site selection, dev of overall site setup including disease surveillance and prevention, continuing trng for deployed personnel to ensure PH threats are minimized.
  82. Areas to consider in site selection include:
    topography and climate data, water sources, vectors`
  83. Topography/climate should prompt a few questions:
    • - What season of the year is it
    • - what are the average temperature ranges throughout the projected length of deployment
  84. Water source selection(one of the most important) is accomplished by a team. Who?
    • CE (water production and environmental)
    • Security police
    • Prev med personnel
  85. Who is the POC for water selection?
  86. When selecting water source consider these factors:
    Quantity, quality, accessibility, vulnerability
  87. Quantity of water varies how?
    season of the year, geo area and tactical situation
  88. Potable water (gal/person/day):
    Drinking - 4
    personal hygiene - 2.7
    shower - 1.3
    food prep - 3
    hospital - 1
    heat treatment - 1
    • laundry - 2
    • construction - 1
    • graves registration - .02
    • vehicle ops - .3
    • aircraft ops - 2
    • 10% loss factor - (1.5)
    • Total 20 gals
  89. What references outlines facility placement during deployment?
    • FM21-10 Field Hygiene and Sanitation
    • FM 21-10 Unit Field Sanitation Team Trng Man
    • NAVMED P5010 Manual of Naval Preventitive Med
  90. Food facilities must have a grease seperator between food facility and soakage pit. How far/where?
    100 yards uphill, upwind, upstream from latrines, 30 yds from garbage/soakage pits
  91. Latrines (placement):
    100 yd downhill, downwind, down stream from food facilities and 100 FEET from nearest water source, and at least 50 FEET from sleeping qtrs
  92. Garbage and soakage pits (site placement):
    30 yds from food facilities, a min of 50 FEET from latrines and away from the flightline
  93. Water points (site selection):
    Upstream from all waste sites. Storage tanks must be located at least 50 FEET from sewage disposal system
  94. Pt decon site (placement):
    250 FEET downhill, downwind, and downstream from MTF. At an acceptable lesson to intercept pt flow
  95. Contaminated materials dump (site placement):
    75 FEET down everything from the decon site.
Card Set
Volume 4 Contigency Operations.txt