-
What immunoglobulin is critical for dealing with respiratory pathogens?
IgA
-
What are the three main purposes of toxins?
- Inhibit immune cells
- Kill host epithelial cells
- Promote inflammation
-
How do organisms generally avoid immune clearance?
Through production of an anti-phagocytic capsule
-
Extensive inflammation breaks down critical tight junction barriers at the epithelium, preventing effective gas exchange. Inflammation can be triggered in a variety of way. What is one of the most common?
Lysis of bacteria, which leads to release of inflammatory debris
-
Which type of infection should be treated with antibiotics, viral or bacterial?
Bacterial
-
What are the two most common causes of Acute Rhinosinusitis?
- Streptococcus pneumonia
- Haemophilus influenza
-
Are infections of the nasal passages most commonly caused by viruses or bacteria?
Viruses
-
Are infections of the pharynx most common caused by viruses or bacteria?
Viruses
-
What are two bacterial causes of concern in pharyngitis?
- Streptococcus pyrogenes
- Corynebacterium diptheriae
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram + cocci
Causes a fever, painful throat, and is sudden in onset
Tonsillopharyngeal erythema, lymphadentitis, petechiae on palate
Rheumatic Fever
Adherence: M protein, Lipoteichoic acid, fibronectin binding protein
Virulence Factors: Hyaluronic Acid Capsule, Hemolysin, Proteases
Streptococcus pyrogenes
-
What adherence factor in Streptococcus pyrogenes is implicated in Rheumatic Fever?
M protein
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-positive, aerobic, toxin-producing rod shaped bacterium
Causes sore throat, low-grade fever, membrane on tonsils or pharynx, neck swelling
Low prevalence in US, but continues to be a prob world-wide
Vaccine (DTaP)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
-
What are the virulence factors associated with Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Diphtheria toxin (A-B toxin) blocks protein synthesis, vaccine target
-
Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes illness when the organism colonizes the mucosal region of the oropharynx and releases diphtheria toxin. How does this kill cells?
By ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 to block protein synthesis. Immune cells respond to the cells killed by the toxin and form a pseudomembrane that blocks the airway.
-
How is infection of Corynebacterium diphtheriae treated?
-
Disease caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae progresses when diphtheria toxin is released into the bloodstream. What does this cause?
Myocarditis and Cranial Nerve Damage
-
What is the major cause of Epiglottitis?
Haemophilus influenza
-
What are the two most common causes of bronchitis?
- Mycoplasma pneumonia
- Chlamydophila pneumonia
-
What is the most common infection of the trachea?
Bordetella pertussis
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-negative, encapsulated, pleomorphic, fastidious rod, requires heme (Factor X) and NAD (Factor V) for growth
Mulitple serotypes, type B is most common
Epiglottitis and pneumonia
Virulence Factors: polysaccharide capsule, outer membrane protein OMP, Lipooligosaccharide LOS (endotoxin-like), IgA protease
Prevention: vaccine
Haemophilus influenza
-
Haemophilus influenza is normal flora for the human nasopharynx, but appears to colonize humans exclusively. It is highly inflammatory and can trigger a strong, damaging inflammatory response. Growth and detection can be difficult due to the fastidious nature of the organism. A classic hallmark of H. influenza is its requirement for growth media supplemented with _______ and ________?
Heme and NAD
-
Haemophilus influenza causes epiglottitis and pneumonia. What are two other diseases, unrelated to the respiratory tract, that this pathogen causes?
Otitis media and Meningitis
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-negative, encapsulated, aerobic, fastidious, coccobacillus
HIGHLY contagious, humans are the only known host
Colonizes trachea and produces multiple toxins
Four stages with different manifestations
Outbreaks every 3-5 years, primarily in children less than 1 year in age
Virulence Factors: Fimbriae, toxins (pertussis toxin, tracheal toxin, adenylate cyclase toxin)
Bordetella pertussis
-
What are the four stages of Bordetella pertussis?
- Incubation: 7-10 days
- Catarrhal: 7-14 days, symptoms of common cold
- Paroxysmal: 3-8 weeks, severe sustained cough
- Convalescent: 3-12 months
-
Why is Bordetella pertussis tricky to diagnose and treat?
- Initial stages of disease can be confused with common cold, but this is when antibiotics would be most effective.
- The paroxysmal stage can progress in the absense of the organism, thus antibiotic treatment at this point may not be effective.
- Disease even after the organism is gone is due to the potent toxins released by the organism and the severe tissue damage and inflammation
-
During the most severe stage of the disease in Bordetella pertussis, the paroxysmal stage, patients can experience coughs so severe that what can result?
- Severe hemorrhages around the eyes
- Brain damage
-
What are the two virulence factors associated with Bordetella pertussis?
- Adherence pili (fimbriae hemagglutinin)
- Antiphagocytic capsule
-
What 3 toxins are associated with Bordetella pertussis?
- Pertussis toxin -- ADP-ribosyltransferase, which blocks an inhibitor of an adenyl cyclase causing an increase in levels of cAMP. Inhibits phagocytic activity
- Tracheal Cytotoxin
- Adenylate Cyclase Toxin -- impairs leukocyte chemotaxis, inhibits phagocytosis
-
What disease should be considered in children and adults with coughs lasting greater than 6 days?
Pertussis
-
What is the Gold Standard Test for diagnosing Bordetella pertussis?
- Culture from nasopharyngeal aspirates on Regan-Lowe medium or Bordet-Gengou
- Must be performed in the Catarrhal
- Recommended within the first 3 weeks
-
What does the CDC recommend for diagnosis of Bordetella pertussis?
- Culture and PCR during first four weeks of symptoms
- PCR and serology for coughs 3-4 weeks
- Serology for cough > 4 weeks
-
What are the treatment options for Bordetella pertussis?
- Erythromycin
- Azithromycin
- Clarithromycin
- Most effective during first week; recommended within first 4 weeks
-
Which form of vaccine is used for children as the initial vaccine and booster for pertussis? What is used in older children and adults as boosters?
- DTaP -- diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis
- Tdap
-
What are the two most common types of pneumonia seen in children aged 0-1 month?
- Escherichia coli
- Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)
-
What are the two most common types of pneumonia seen in children aged 1-6 months?
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
-
What are the two most common types of pneumonia seen in children aged 6 months to 5 years?
- Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
- Influenza Virus Type A
-
What are the two most common types of pneumonia seen in people aged 16-30 years?
- M. pneumonia
- Streptococcus pneumonia
-
What are the two most common types of pneumonia seen in older adults?
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-positive, catalase-negative, Optochin sensitive, alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated diplococci
Pneumonia with rapid onset and blood sputum
Most prevalent cause of death due to acute infection in US, 6th leading cause of disease in the US
Polysaccharide capsule is a major part of virulence and the target of current vaccines
Streptococcus pneumonia
-
Streptococus pneumonia is a serious healthcare problem in hospitalized elderly patients. What are the 3 characteristics that are used to differentiate this from other gram-positive cocci?
- Optochin sensitivity
- Catalase-negative
- Alpha-hemolysis
-
Identify the pathogen:
Abrupt onset of fever and chills
Productive blood sputum
Can follow recent viral infections
Primarily targets children
6th leading cause of disease in US
Cause of about 6 million cases of otitis media
Most prevalent cause of death due to acute infection in the US
Streptococcus pneumonia
-
Streptococcus pneumonia has an antiphagocytic capsule. What does it prevent?
C3b opsonization
-
What protease is associated with Streptococcus pneumonia? What toxin is responsible for disrupting the alveolar-capillary boundary?
- IgA protease
- PLY pore-forming toxin
-
What 3 cell components are associated with Streptococcus pneumonia?
- PspA, anti-complement
- CbpA, cell adhesion
- LytA, autolysin
-
What pathogen is the following pathogenesis associated with?
Following colonization at site of disease:
-- Capsule prevents phagocytosis
-- PspA blocks complement
-- IgA protease destroys IgA
-- CpbA adheres to cells
-- Ply disrupts barriers
-- Autolysin lysis the organism (release debri causes massive inflammatory response)
Streptococcus Pneumonia
-
What two vaccines are available for streptococcus pneumonia?
- Prevnar, 7-11 valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine: given to children <2 and kids 2-5 with increased risk
- Pneumovax, 23 Valent Vaccine: individuals >50, children >2 with predisposing conditions
-
What are the treatment options for streptococcus pneumonia?
- Cefotaxime
- Ceftiaxone
- Clindamycin
- (about 1/3 of isolates in US are now resistant to penicillin)
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-negative, fastidious, aerobic, facultative intracellular pathogen
Legionnaire's disease and atypical walking pneumonia
High mortality rate, few reported cases in the US
Virulence Factors: phospholipase, macrophage infectivity protein, and endotoxin
Pathogenesis-growth to very high numbers in macrophages and stimulation of inflammatory responses
Detection: direct observation of the organism in sputum, antibody reactivity, urine test for circulating antigen
Legionella pneumophila
-
What disease is unusual in combining pneumonia with several other systemic complications including altered liver and renal function along with heightened serum creatinine phosphokinase?
Legionnaire's Disease
-
How is Legionnella pneumophila transmitted?
Aerosolization or aspiration of contaminated water
-
Identify the pathogen:
Gram-negative, aerobic rod with large polysaccharide capsule
Normal flora of upper respiratory tract, enteric and genitourinary tracts
Pneumonia observed in alcoholics following aspiration of this pathogen into lungs
Signs and symptoms include sudden onset, high fever, hemoptysis (currant jelly sputum)
<1% of cases require hospitalization
Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
How is Klebsiella pneumonia generally detected? How can it be prevented? What is the treatment for this pathogen?
- PCR-based tests
- Proper sanitation for nosocomial infections
- Third generation cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones
-
Identify the pathogen:
Smallest bacterial genome
No peptidoglycan cell wall
Membrane contains cholesterol like eukaryotes
Normal inhabitants of respiratory tracts
Similar in size to some viruses
Primary cause of walking or "atypical" pneumonia
Usually mild
Upper respiratory tract infection with fever, cough, malaise, and headache
May lead to tracheobronchitis with fever and nonproductive cough
Rare extrapulmonary syndromes, including cardiologic, neurologic, and dermatologic findings
Impacts infants and immunocompromised patients
Occurs most frequently among people who are in close quarters
Mycoplasma pneumonia
-
The virulence factor associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia is an adhesion protein that inhibits ciliary action. It produces hydrogen peroxide and cytolytic enzymes, and triggers a strong proinflammatory response. What is this adhesion protein called?
P1
-
_______ __________ with respiratory illness is commonly associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia infection.
Cold agglutination
-
How is infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia treated?
- Erythromycin
- Azithromycin
- Clarithromycin
- (has no peptidoglycan cell wall, so beta-lactam and similar antibiotics will not affect this organism)
-
Identify the pathogen:
Aerobic, acid-fast rods, with high membrane lipid content
Grow very slowly
Resistant to intracellular killing by phagocytes
Mycobacteria
-
What are the two respiratory pathogens included in Mycobacteria?
- Mycobacterium avium
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
Identify the pathogen:
Acid-fast, aerobic, slow growing, facultative intracellular bacilli, with a unique cell wall -- contains mycolic acid and arabinogalactan in addition to peptidoglycan.
This cell wall allows this pathogen to survive inside macrophages, and makes it impervious to many different antibiotics.
85% of cases are pulmonary, with a slow onset and chronic course.
It originates in the lungs and moves to other regions of the body
This is the most common infectious cause of mortality worldwide
One-third of world's population is infected
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
What are the two unique features of the cell of wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Contains mycolic acid and arabinogalactan in addition to peptidoglycan
-
Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not produce toxins, so the virulence of this organism is largely determined by its survival in the presence of immune responses and intracellular environment. What is the major virulence factor of M. tuberculosis? What are the other two?
- Cord Factor (trehalose dimycolate, cell wall component): inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis; potent immunological adjuvant; helps prevent lysosomal killing of the organism following engulfment by macrophages
- Sulfatides: inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion in macrophages, allows intracellular survival
- Tuberculin: stimulates cell-mediated immunity promoting granuloma formation
-
Identify the pathogen:
Collection of activated macrophages surrounding an area of necrosis (caseous necrosis)
CD4+ T-cells, produce cytokines
Mycobacterial antigens persistently activate T-cells in the granuloma
Chronic inflammation and type IV hypersensitivity
Tuberculosis Granuloma
-
What is the most definitive test for detection of Tuberculosis Granuloma?
Growth on Lowenstein-Jensen Agar (2-4 weeks)
-
Which type of viral respiratory infection, upper or lower, is associated with a higher morbidity and mortality?
Lower Respiratory Infections
-
What are the two most common causes of the common cold in infants and children? In adults?
-
What are the two most common causes of pharyngitis in infants <1 yr? In children and adults?
-
What are the two most common causes of laryngitis?
Parainfluenza and Influenza
-
What are the two most common causes of LTB/croup in infants and children? In adults?
- Parainfluenza/Influenza
- Influenza/Adeno
-
What are the two most common causes of Bronchiolitis in infants less than 1 year? (rare in children and adults)
RSV/Parainfluenza
-
What are the two most common causes of pneumonia in infants less than 1 year? In children? In adults?
- RSV/Influenza
- Influenza/Parainfluenza
- Influenza/Adeno
-
What type of virus is the influenza virus?
- Orthomyxovirus
- (-) RNA virus
-
Which influenza serotype causes the most severe disease (causes pandemics)? It undergoes antigenic shift.
Type A
-
Differences within the type A class of influenza virus are determined by what two things?
Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuroaminidase (NA)
-
In the influenza virus structure, what external protein is the object by which the virus attaches to cells? Antibodies to this neutralize the virus. It attaches to cell sialoglycoproteins and sialoglycolipids. It is the primary target of vaccines. Contains a peptide sequence with fusion activity.
Hemagglutinin
-
In the influenza virus structure, what is the enzyme that cleaves sialic acid, enhances release, and prevents clustering of the virus or binding by mucous (contains SA)?
Neuraminidase
-
In the influenza virus, there are two matrix proteins inside of the envelope. _____ is important in virus assembly. _____ is an ion channel protein involved in controlling internal pH
-
There are two non-structural proteins in the influenza virus. First is _______, which is produced in cells only, and interferes with cellular antiviral response. Second is ______ -- present in small amounts and functions in transport of viral nucleoproteins, and regulation of viral RNA synthesis.
-
What does the influenza virus require for replication?
A viral polymerase carried in the virion
-
Identify the virus from the clinical presentation:
Typical infection begins with fever, headache, myalgia and malaise, cough and sore throat. Usually improves over 2-5 days, may last for a week or more. May have weakness, fatigability.
Can also result in Reye's Syndrome (liver failure) with increased risk with ASA use -- so aspirin should not be used in childen with this
Influenza Virus
-
Antigenic shift is limited to influenza virus serotype _____ only.
A
-
What involves point mutations in HA; NA can alter the virus enough that a person's AB from a previous infection may not completely protect them, but results in milder disease. These changes can be in the A or B serotypes.
Antigenic Drift
-
Does Antigenic Shift involve point mutations in HA, NA, or both?
HA
-
Does antigenic shift involve changes in the HA, NA or both?
Both/Either
-
Which can cause full-scale pandemics, antigenic drift or antigenic shift?
Antigenic Shift
-
What is the main type of influenza vaccine?
Trivalent Inactivated Vaccine (TIV)
-
What two drugs were previously used to treat active influenza A, but are not used anymore due to resistance? What two drugs work somewhat for both serotypes A and B and are sometimes used?
- Rimantidine & Amantadine
- Oseltamavir & Zanamavir (Neuraminidase Inhibitors)
-
What type of agents are indicated as prophylaxis in high risk patients who cannot take the influenza vaccine?
Neuraminidase Inhibitors (Oseltamavir & Zanamavir)
-
In what patients is Zanamavir (a neuraminidase inhibitor to treat influenza) contraindicated for?
COPD and asthma, because can cause decrease in FEV1
-
Parainfluenza virus 1-4, respiratory syncytial virus, measles, and mumps viruses are all what type of viruses?
Paramyxoviruses
-
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is an exception to the structure within the paramyxovirus group. What is the main difference?
The hemagglutinin/neuroaminidase is replaced by a G surface glycoprotein
-
Southeast US; symptoms include malaise, weight loss, night sweats, chest pain, hoarseness, fever; bilateral rales; rhonchi; raised verrucous, crusted lesions; multiple nodular lesions; thick-walled, refractile broad-based budding yeast cell; white fluffy fungus; necrosis and cavitation; dimorphic; inhalation; 4-6 week innoculation period; indolent pulmonary inf; opportunistic; can disseminate; KOH preps, culture, serology
Blastomyces dermatitidis
-
Smoker; Central/SA; asymptomatic; CXR = cavitary lesion; S. American blastomycosis; forest workers -- males more bc more male lumberjacks; has receptors for estrogen; dimorphic; inhalation; yeast; chonic granulomatous disease; primary inf is pulmonary, reactivates yrs later, disseminates to buccal, nasal, GI mucosa; mariner's wheel; KOH prep/sputum stain.
Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
-
Type I diabetes; ketoacidosis; periorbital swelling; mucopurulent postnasal discharge; black ulceration of nasal mucosa; 3rd CN palsy; no improvement w antibiotics; rapidly growing fungus with wide, irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles; rhizopus spp. and mucor spp., uncontrolled diabetics and leukemics; monomorphic; loves blood vessels; rhinocerebral zygomycosis; destruction of lung parenchyma; grows very rapidly; black fungus in mouth; CT of paranasal sinuses, detect microscopy, biopsy; Ampho B and debridement; high MORTALITY
Zygomycosis
-
Leukemic on cytotoxic therapy; chest pain, fever, chills, hemoptosis, resp. distress; bilateral rales; ANC; fungus with septate, acutely branching hyphae; vascular thrombi due to hyphal invasion of blood vessels; catalase +; chronic granulomatous disease and neutropenia; necrotizing pneumonia and aspergilloma (fungus ball); direct microscopy, biopsy; monomorphic; dichotomously branching hyphae
Aspergillus fumigatos
-
Trouble breathing, fever, chills, wheezing, productive cough with black sputum; eosinophilia; low O2 sat; IgE antibodies against Aspergillus; CXR shows infiltrates in upper lobes with branching, finger-like shadows.
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosus (ABPA)
-
Actinomyces (anaerobic); Nocardia (aerobic); gram-+, non-AF; slow-growing filamentous, branched rods; commensals; produce granules.
Actinomycetales
-
Dental procedure; painless mass on mandible draining pus and yellowish granules; branching, gram + rods; actinomyces israelli; must have pre-disposing factor: dental procedure or oromaxillofacial trauma; submandibular jaws; suppuration with draining abscess; grains or "sulfur granules" in tissues; rx = penicillin, + oral penicillin or amoxicillin
Cervicofacial actinomycosis
-
Chronic asthma; high dose steroids; productive cough, weight loss, night sweats; abscesses in lungs and brain; gram + filaments that are weakly acid fast; bilateral nodular opacities; GMS stain; opportunistic; ubiquitous saprophytes; local traumatic innoculation or inhalation; CMI-deficient at risk; cutaneous cellulitis/ mycetoma; pneumonia; disseminated -- deep abscesses and necrosis CNS; urease; rx = antibiotics TMP-SMX
Nocardia asteroides
-
What is the most common etiology for Pericarditis?
Viral -- enteroviruses (fecal-oral to bloodstream): coxsackie A/B, echovirus
-
How are enteroviruses spread?
Fecal-oral to bloodstream
-
What is purulent spread? What are two examples that are spread this way?
- Bloodstream or lungs
- Staph/Strep
-
What is are two chronic pathogens implicated in pericarditis?
TB/Fungal
-
How do cardiotropic viruses spread to the heart?
Via the bloodstream
-
Do enteroviruses cause massive diarrhea?
No
-
Fatigue; progressive dyspnea 6 weeks after episode of massive diarrhea; bilateral pleural effusion; extensive pericardial effusion; acute inflammation confined to visceral and parietal pericardial layers; Latin America; small mammal reservoirs; transmission -- bite of the "kissing bug" or "assassin bug"; Triatoma, Rhodnius, or Panstrongylus; most people can clear this easily, but becomes chronic for some -- myocarditis is presenting symptom; incubation period of 4 days to 2 wks; localized infection -- initial lesion is a nodule with facial edema (chagoma or chancre); systemic infection via lymphatics or bloodstream; fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, myocarditis, megacolon, megaesophagus, denervation and loss of tone in GI tract; Ramana's sign; Trypomastigote stage in thick or thin blood smears; amastigote in BM aspirates/ muscle biopsies; PCR/serology; rx = benzidazole or nifurtimox
- Trypanosoma cruzi myocarditis
- (chagas' disease or American trypanosomiasis)
-
What are the two types of infective endocarditis?
-
What agents are responsible for the acute form of endocarditis?
- S. aureus
- Group A/B strep
- Gram-negative rods
-
What agents are responsible for the subacute form of endocarditis (native-valve)?
- Oral streptococci
- Enterococci
- S. aureus
- HACEK
-
What agents are responsible for the subacute form of endocarditis (prosthetic valve)?
- S. epidermidis
- S. aureus
- Oral streptococci
-
How do we differentiate between S. epidermidis and S. aureus?
S. epidermidis is coagulase negative
-
How do we differentiate between staph and strep?
Staph is catalase positive; strep is catalase negative
-
Streptococci are initially classified based on hemolysis. which two are beta-hemolytic? How do we differentiate between these two?
- Strep A and B
- A: pyogenes -- bacitracin sensitive
- B: agalactiae -- bacitracin resistant
-
Streptococci are initially classified based on hemolysis. Which agent is gama-hemolytic?
Enterococcus
-
Streptococci are initially classified based on hemolysis. Which two are alpha-hemolytic? How are these differentiated?
- Strep pneumonia: optochin sensitive, bile soluble, capsule
- Strep viridans: mutans, sanguis, optochin resistant, no bile soluble, no capsule
-
What type of strep are alpha-hemolytic, normal flora in oral cavity, and are responsible for dental carries?
Oral or virdans streptococci
-
What organisms are classified as viridans streptococci?
- S. mitis
- S. milleri
- S. salivarius
- S. sanguinis
- S. mutans
-
What type of strep is classified as alpha/gamma hemolytic, normal flora of large intestine, causes UTI, sepsis, and nosocomial infections. Can hydrolize esculin/grow in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile salts
Enterococci or Group D strep
-
What organisms are classified as Enterococci or group D strep?
- E. faecalis
- E. faecium
- E. durans
-
Which type of endocarditis, acute or subacute, has an abrupt onset of high-grade fevers, chills, and rapid heart rate? There is rapid destruction of the infected valve. Look for a history of antecedent procedures or illicit drugs; can be rapidly fatal.
Acute
-
Which type of endocarditis, acute or subacute, has symptoms that may be subtle and non-specific, including a low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, flu-like symtpoms, and anemia. Rarely causes metastatic infections. Symptoms may persist for weeks.
Subacute
-
Identify the syndrome:
New/worsened regurgitant murmur
Cardiac complications
Arterial emboli
Splenomegaly
Neurological manifestations
Pulmonary symptoms
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Janeway lesions
Osler's nodes
Endocarditis
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