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1. Chemical, water-base cleaners are often used for very dirty, greasy parts. If used:
- a. the surface must be subsequently cleaned with a solvent cleaner.
- b. The surface must be thoroughly rinsed free of any residue.
- c. Heat must be used to ensure the removal of any detergents from surface openings.
- d. The surfaces must be subsequently cleaned with a volatile solvent cleaner.
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2.Generally, vapor degreasing is considered to be one of the best methods of preparing a partfor liquid penetrant inspection because:
- a. it totally removes all surface contaminants.
- b. The solvent vapor removes all petroleum based materials
- c. The method is easily adapted to virtually any size of the part
- d. The solvent vapor removes all inorganic soils
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3.When penetrant is applied to parts by dipping, the parts should be:
- a. left in the tank during the entire dwell time.
- b. Set aside until the dwell time is up
- c. Placed on a rack designed to return any excess drainage to the dipping station
- d. Placed in the alkaline solvent rinse tank immediately.
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4.Penetrant stations that have reservoir tanks with recovery systems incorporated:
- a. should have an agitation system because penetrants are homogeneous
- b. should have an agitation system to prevent the settling of possible contaminants
- c. do not need an agitation system as penetrants are pasteurized.
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5. When removing penetrant from the surface by spray water wash, penetrant in a crack would be harder to remove if it has:
- a. low viscosity
- b. high viscosity
- c. medium viscosity
- d. viscosity is not important
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6. The most desirable objectives governing the cleaning operations when removing surface penetrant are to:
- a. remove little penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant remaining on the surface
- b. remove little penetrant from a defect and no residual penetrant remaining on the surface.
- c. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave minimum of residual on the part surface.
- d. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave no penetrant on the part surface.
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7. The best method of removing the excess water-washable penetrant is to:
- a. Immediately immerse the part in the water rinse tank.
- b. Use water running directly from a tap.
- c. Boil in hot water or steam spray.
- d. Use a hose and nozzle with forceful droplets.
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8. When removing excess post-emulsifiable penetrant in a production situation involving small irregularly-shaped parts, one may use a:
- a. Strong forceful spray
- b. Strong water blast
- c. Commercial solvent
- d. Hot water immersion.
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9. The sensitivity of wet developers can be seriously impaired:
- a. remove little penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant remaining on the surface
- b. remove little penetrant from a defect and no residual penetrant remaining on the surface.
- c. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave minimum of residual on the part surface.
- d. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave no penetrant on the part surface.
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10. When is a non-aqueous wet developer generally preferred?
- a. when the dryer oven temperature is above 121�C. (250�F)
- b. when it is essential to obtain as smooth and as even a coating as possible.
- c. When using a fluorescent penetrant on an as-cast surface.
- d. When using a fluorescent penetrant on a wire brushed weld.
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11. The best method of drying after the application of a wet developer is normally:
- a. blotting the surface gently with absorbive paper toweling.
- b. Allowing the part to dry slowly at or slightly above the ambient temperature
- c. Rapid drying with a normal room temperature air blast.
- d. Rapid drying with circulating hot air at 77�-107�C (170�-225�F)
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12. Removal of residual penetrant or developer materials by a suitable post-cleaning technique is advantageous in which of the following cases?
- a. where it could interfere with subsequent processes or with service
- b. where it could provide a contrasting background
- c. where it could assist in the emulsification of the penetrant bleed-out.
- d. Where it could assist in the lattice structure
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13.Post-cleaning is particularly important where residual penetrant or developer materials may combine with other materials in service to produce:
- a. corrosive action
- b. a contrasting background.
- c. False penetrant indications
- d. Proper surface tension
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14. Post-cleaning should be performed:
- a. as soon as possible because the materials will be easier to remove
- b. after several hours because the drier the materials are, the easier they will wipe off.
- c. With the part warm to enhance the solubility of penetrant material
- d. With the part chilled to cause the materials to lose their cohesion.
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15. When using post-emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant on small parts where sulfur or chlorine residual is deemed harmful.
- a.low sulphur and low chlorine content penetrant materials should be used and the part should be post-cleaned by solvent wipe.
- b. Fluorescent materials should be used and the part should be detergent-washed
- c. Low sulphur and low chlorine penetrant materials should be used and the part should be post-cleaned in an automatic detergent wash.
- d. Color contrast should be used so that any residue can be readily seen and removed.
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16. �Eyeball fluorescence� should be considered when arranging black light for testing, because direct or reflected black light shining into the inspector�s eyes:
- a. could cause tissue damage
- b. is harmless and of no consequence
- c. even though harmless, can become extremely annoying and will impair inspector effectiveness
- d. even though annoying, it will not impair inspector effectiveness
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17. Residual acids and chromates are more detrimental to the fluorescent water-wash process than other processes because:
- a. the fluorescent dyes in all processes are equally affected
- b. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the presence of water
- c. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the presence of emulsifiers
- d. emulsifiers neutralize the effects of the acids and chromates
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18. Due to the nature of penetrant material, most methods have which of the following adverse effects on operator health?
- a. penetrants are a hazard due to their inorganic base.
- b. Penetrant methods include materials which can cause dermatitis if proper precautions are not observed.
- c. Penetrant materials contain hallucinogens that can cause a sense of drunkenness
- d. Modern penetrants have been improved to be virtually hazard free
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19. Which of the following is an advantage of post-emulsifiable methods over water-washable methods?
- a. the excess penetrant removal is accomplished by water spray.
- b. Their sensitivity is easy to control
- c. The overall test time is shortened
- d. They usually exhibit higher sensitivity to tight cracks
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20.When compared to other methods, which of the items below are disadvantages of water-emulsifiable visible dye methods?
- a. degree of sensitivity to acidity and alkalinity
- b. portability
- c. test time
- d. requirements of ordinary light
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21. The type of penetrant to be used on an investment casting should be:
- a. water-washable fluorescent for adequate sensitivity and water washability.
- b. Solvent removable because of size and shape
- c. Post-emulsifiable fluorescent for maximum sensitivity and water washability.
- d. Solvent removable for greater visibility
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22. Which of the following techniques has been found to be effective for aiding penetration in certain instances in commercial application?
- a. heating the penetrant
- b. vibration
- c. vacuum and pressure
- d. ultrasonic pumping
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23. Dentist have used liquid penetrant inspection to:
- a. locate fine cracks in teeth prior to the availability of X-rays
- b. locate defects in artificial teeth prior to mounting them
- c. verify questionable information gathered from X-rays
- d. identify the filling material
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24. There is a variety of equipment available for precleaning parts prior to penetrant application. Of the following, the recommended method, if practical, is:
- a. sand or grit blasters
- b. solvent or chemical tanks
- c. vapor degreasers
- d. water-detergent washing machines
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25. If modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
- a. before the emulsifier tank
- b. after the developer tank
- c. before the developer tank
- d. after the wash unit
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26. In a modular equipment system using a water-washable fluorescent penetrant and dry developer, black light should be available:
- a. at the penetrant station
- b. at the wash station
- c. at the developer station
- d. after the oven cycle
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27. When a large number of parts are inspected using dry developer that is applied by dipping, the tank should be equipped with:
- a. an exhaust system
- b. an agitator
- c. an electrostatic charger
- d. a developer replenisher
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28. Filters for black light effectively remove:
- a. natural white light
- b. radiation of a wavelength above 300 nm (3 000 �) units
- c. visible light from the energy given off by the mercury arc
- d. fluorescence from the penetrant
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29. Super-bright fluorescent penetrants may be:
- a. more sensitive in dim daylight than color contrast penetrant materials
- b. as sensitive in dim daylight as it is in darkness
- c. more sensitive than normal fluorescent penetrants but they cannot be used in daylight
- d. less sensitive in dim daylight than color contrast penetrant materials
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30. The use of high power spot bulbs for color contrast penetrants:
- a. should be avoided as too much glare may occur
- b. will reduce eye fatique
- c. is acceptable provided the light is shielded
- d. is acceptable provided the light is not shielded
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31. A good penetrant must be:
- a. inert with respect to the materials being tested
- b. highly viscous
- c. highly volatile
- d. an inorganic base liquid
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32. Wetting ability is measured by the:
- a. specific gravity
- b. density
- c. contact angle
- d. surface tension
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33. Which of the following functions does a developer perform?
- a. �blots� the penetrant by drawing it out of discontinuities
- b. masks out nonrelevant indications
- c. dries out the surface of the part
- d. provides a non contrasting background
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34.The method that uses a color contrast penetrant in conjunction with a developer containing a low intensity fluoragent is called:
- a. fluorescent developer method
- b. reversed fluorescent method
- c. contrast fluorescent method
- d. reversed contrast method
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35. When inspection using fluorescent penetrant methods, indications will appear as a:
- a. soft white glow against a gray background
- b. brilliant yellow-green glow against a white background
- c. brilliant yellow-green glow against a deep violet-blue background
- d. bright yellow-green glow against a black background.
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36. A visible dye indication will usually appear as a:
- a. bright red glow against a white background
- b. red color against a gray background
- c. red color against a white background
- d. red color against a glowing white background
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37. When the reversed fluorescent method is used and inspection is performed under black light, indications will show up as:
- a. dark spots or lines against a deep violet-blue background
- b. yellow-green lines or spots against a glowing background
- c. dark spots or lines against a lightly glowing background
- d. there is no such method
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38. If an indication reappears after the original developer has been removed and another coat is applied, the discontinuity:
- a. contains a reservoir of penetrant
- b. is probably shrinkage
- c. is most likely porosity
- d. is most likely a crack
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39. If, upon reprocessing, a faint indication fails to reappear, what could be the cause?
- a. it was probably a false indication
- b. the area has been overcleaned
- c. the indication is probably due to a small flaw
- d. reprocessing has resealed the opening
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40.A network of interconnecting jagged lines appearing in hard fired, unglazed ceramic products would be an indication of:
- a. thermal shock
- b. fatique cracks
- c. shrinkage cracks
- d. grinding cracks
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41. Porosity indications in ceramics would appear:
- a. more intense than porosity indications in metals
- b. essentially the same as porosity indications in metals
- c. less intense than porosity indications in metals
- d. as minute cracks
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42.When inspecting glass and looking for very fine cracks, the preferred method is:
- a. post-emulsifiable fluorescent
- b. water-washable fluorescent
- c. post-emulsifiable color contrast
- d. electrified particle
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43. When inspecting a hard fired ceramic that is very porous, the best inspection method would be the:
- a. filtered particle method
- b. electrified particle method
- c. brittle enamel method
- d. emulsifiable color contrast method
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44. A partially welded forging lap would probably:
- a. give no indication
- b. appear as a very thin, continuous line
- c. appear as a broad, continuous line
- d. appear as an intermittent line
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45. A ragged line of variable width and numerous branches on castings caused by a difference in cooling rates between thick and thinner sections, would most likely be an indication of:
- a. shrinkage
- b. cold shut
- c. hot tear
- d. lap
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46. A deep crater crack will frequently appear as a:
- a. small tight crack
- b. rounded indication
- c. fine linear indication
- d. faint intermittent line
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47. The forces generated by capillary attraction caused a liquid to rise spontaneously in a capillary tube. These forces are also involved in the:
- a. entry of a liquid into a crack.
- b. Solubility of a liquid
- c. Flash point of a liquid
- d. Chemical inertness of a liquid
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48.Viscosity has a considerable effect on some of the practical aspects of the use of penetrant. It is an important factor in the:
- a. solubility of contaminants
- b. washability of a penetrant
- c. degree of fluorescence emitted
- d. speed with which a penetrant will enter a defect
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49.One of the two most important properties of a good penetrant is wetting ability. Wetting ability is :
- a. measured by contact angle and is not related to surface tension.
- b. A function of viscosity and increases as surface tension decreases
- c. Measured by contact angle and decreases as surface tension increases
- d. Measured by surface tension and increases as contact angle decreases
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50.To make water a relatively good penetrant:
- a. a wetting agent must be added to reduce surface tension.
- b. A wetting agent must be added to reduce wetting ability
- c. A wetting agent must be added to increase surface tension
- d. Water is a good penetrant and no additives are needed.
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51. A penetrant that will spread over the surface of the test area in a smooth, even film despite a small amount of surface contamination is said to have:
- a. low viscosity
- b. high viscosity
- c. wetting ability
- d. low evaporation
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52. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by:
- a. using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity
- b. using cracked aluminum blocks
- c. measuring the contact angles in a wetting test
- d. the meniscus test
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53. For post-emulsifiable penetrants, a good method for establishing emulsifying time is by:
- a. experimentation
- b. the water drop-through test
- c. the water-tolerance test
- d. using published book values
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54. A newly mixed batch of wet developer should:
- a. be checked by a hydrometer
- b. be agitated for 30 to 40 minutes
- c. have 0.03 to 0.04 L per 3.8 L (1 to 1.5 oz per 1 gal) of ammonia added to stabilize the mixture
- d. stand for 4 to 5 hours prior to use
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55. The test used to measure the sensitivity of a penetrant to water contamination based on the amount of water is the:
- a. a water drop-through test
- b. hydrometer test
- c. photofluorometer test
- d. water tolerance test
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56. When performing an evaluation of the fluorescent ability of a penetrant, the value that is normally sought is the:
- a. amount of actual light emitted by indications
- b. amount of black light necessary to cause the material to fluoresce
- c. relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to other penetrants.
- d. Relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to the light emitted by the background.
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57. The most accurate method for evaluating quantitative values for the emitted light of fluorescent materials is the use of a:
- a. spectrophotometer
- b. filter-photometer
- c. nefluoro-photometer
- d. photofluorometer
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58. The ability of an indication to be seen can be assigned a value called the contrast ratio. This ratio is based on the amount of:
- a. white light present as opposed to the amount of light absorbed by the dye
- b. light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light absorbed by the dye.
- c. Light absorbed by the background as opposed to the amount of light reflected by the dye.
- d. Light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light reflected by the dye
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59. The contrast ratio of a red dye penetrant to a white developer is normally about:
- a. 33 to 1
- b. 6 to 1
- c. 9 to 1
- d. 9 to 2
- e. 23 to 1
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60. Cracked plated strips are sometimes used to compare sensitivity. These plates usually have a brittle iron plating and are bent on:
- a. cantilever bending dies only
- b. radial bending dies only
- c. circumferential bending dies only
- d. cantilever and radial bend dies
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61 If a cantilever bending die is used to bend a plated strip, the cracks produced will:
- a. be equally spaced and of uniform width
- b. be equally spaced and of graduated depth
- c. closer together and tighter near the clamped end
- d. cantilever bending dies are not used
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62. The test object and standard penetrant materials should be within a particular temperature range. One of the reasons an excessively cold penetrant is undersirable is that as the temperature becomes lower:
- a. the viscosity decreases
- b. the viscosity increases
- c. fewer volatile materials will be lost
- d. the dyes degrade
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63. If the surface temperature of the test part is excessively hot, the:
- a. viscosity of the penetrant may be too high
- b. penetrant may loose some of its more volatile materials
- c. surface tension of the penetrant increases
- d. contact angle increases
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64. Which of the following is a criterion for a good dryer?
- a. the ability to dry the surface slowly
- b. the ability to heat the part to an optimum temperature in a minimum of time so that the part is both dry and warm as promptly as possible.
- c. The electrical heating elements so that there is a guarantee that no contaminants can be introduce into the inspection process
- d. Be a warm air blast system.
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65. What are the two most important properties that determine whether a liquid will have high penetrating ability?
- a. surface tension and viscosity
- b. viscosity and cosine of contact angle
- c. cosine of the contact angle and density
- d. density and surface tension
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66. Where pre-cleaning is necessary and a residue-free solvent is used, which of the following is observed?
- a. the solvents are not suitable for removing grease
- b. the solvents are not suitable for removing oil
- c. the solvents should never be used for removing grease and oils
- d. the solvents are suitable for removing grease and oils, but are generally not adequate if solids are imbedded in void areas.
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67. When utilizing the fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant method and performing the rinse cycle, which of the following will prevent over-rinsing?
- a. rinse before the penetrant is completely emulsified
- b. rinse after the penetrant is completely emulsified
- c. discontinue the rinse as soon as the surface penetrant is removed from the part
- d. rinse only with water hotter than 43� C (110� F)
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