1. Landing Gear: When, on takeoff does NW steering become inhibited?
  2. Landing Gear: How much NW steering is available through the rudder pedals?
    6 degrees left or right
  3. Landing Gear: How much NW steering is available through the steering handwheel?
    75 degrees left or right
  4. Landing Gear: When does AUTOBRAKE disarm on takeoff?
    10 seconds after lift off
  5. Landing Gear: What is indicated on the SD wheel page by REL (blue) and green dashes on each side of the wheel number?
    That the antiskid function is working
  6. Landing Gear: When does the DECEL light illuminate?
    When the actual deceleration rate is 80% of the programmed rate
  7. Landing Gear: How can AUTOBRAKE be deselected?
    Apply foot pressure to the pedals before 50 kts
  8. Landing Gear: With PARK BRAKE set, is pedal braking still active?
    no, it deactivates all other braking modes
  9. Landing Gear: After gravity extension, what happens to the gear doors and N/W steering?
    The doors remain open and N/W steering is not available
  10. Landing Gear: What is indicated by a green/ amber arc on the wheel SD?
    • Green arc= Brake temperature exceeds 100 degrees on hottest brake
    • Amber arc= Brake temperature exceeds 300 degrees on hottest brake
  11. Landing Gear: What is the maximum brake pressure when the A/SKID is inop?
    1000 PSI, to prevent locking the wheels
  12. Landing Gear: What are the immediate actions if the brakes fail with AUTOBRAKE ON?
    Press the brake pedals (this overrides the autobrake)
  13. Landing Gear: What are the immediate actions if the brakes fail with AUTOBRAKE OFF?
    • Reverse - Max
    • Brake pedals - Release
    • A/skid N/WS - OFF
    • Brake predals - PRESS
    • Max brake pressure - 1000 PSI
  14. Landing Gear: When the ECAM says L/G----GRVTY EXTN what should you do?
    • Pull & turn gravity gear extension
    • Landing gear lever down
    • Check the DOWN indications
  15. Landing Gear: What is the limiting speed for Tyres (groundspeed)?
    195 Kts
  16. Landing Gear: What is the limiting speed for Gear Up/Down selection?
    • Up = 220 Kts
    • Down = 250 Kts
  17. Landing Gear: What is the limiting speed for gear locked down?
    280 Kts/ M0.67
  18. Landing Gear: How long can the yellow hydraulic accumuator hold the parking brake ON?
    A minimum of 12 hours
  19. Landing Gear: What is the maximum yellow brake pressure?
    1000 PSI
  20. Landing Gear: What is the connection between the steering handwheel signals and rudder steering signals?
    They are all additive
  21. Landing Gear: What delays occur in LO/MED/MAX before braking starts?
    • LO = 4 sec's after spoiler deployment
    • MED = 2 sec's after spoiler deployment
    • MAX = immediately after spoiler deployment
  22. Landing Gear: How many green triangles (on the SD) confirm that the gear is locked down?
    3 total (2 for each landing gear)
  23. Landing Gear: When does the BRK FAN illuminate HOT?
    When the temperature of the brake is >300 degrees
  24. Landing Gear: On the GEAR panel, what is indicated by a red UNLK light?
    gear is in transit or not locked in selected position
  25. Electrical: What drives the emergency generator?
    The blue hydraulic system by a motor
  26. Electrical: What normally supplies AC ESS bus?
    AS Bus 1
  27. Electrical: What is the alternate supply for AC ESS bus?
    AC Bus 2 (through the AC ESS feed contactor)
  28. Electrical: What is the minimum battery voltage at the start of the day?
  29. Electrical: AVAIL (green) on the EXT PWR switch means what?
    External power is connected and within limits
  30. Electrical: From the electrical SD, how can you tell that the batteries are being charged?
    By a green arrow pointing at the battery
  31. Electrical: How long (approx.) does it take to charge the batteries?
    20 minutes
  32. Electrical: On the MER ELEC PWR panel (OHP) RAT and EM GEN FAULT (red) means what?
    The emergency generator is not supplying power when the AC busses are not powered (1&2)
  33. Electrical: In EMER CONFIG, what hapens if the airspeed falls below 140 Kts?
    The RAT will stall, the emergency generator will no longer supply electircal power and the system will transfer tot he batteries and static inverter
  34. Electrical: Which busses are supplied by the EMER GEN?
    The DC ESS & AC ESS, DC Shed bus & AC shed bus
  35. Electrical: On battery power only (in flight), which busses are supplied and can the APU be started?
    AC ESS bus, AS static inverter, DC ESS bus, hot bus 1 and Hot bus 2. The APU can be started bu is inhibited the first 45 seconds
  36. Electrical: How long does battery power last (in flight)?
    30 minutes
  37. Electrical: What happens when the RAT MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pushed?
    The RAT is extended and connects the emergency generator after a 3 seconds delay. The RAT drives the blue hydraulic system
  38. Electrical: What is the effect of switching OFF the GEN 1 LINE SW?
    It opens the Gen1 contactor, GEN1 supplies 1 fuel pump in each tank
  39. Electrical: Wat is the priority order for APU/ENG/EXT PWR generators?
    • 1. Engine Generator
    • 2. External generator
    • 3. APU generator
  40. Electrical: The battery Volts check require which switch(es) to be OFF?
    The battery PB switches
  41. Electrical: For how long should an IDG disconnect button be pushed?
    Not more than 3 seconds
  42. Electrical: What does the bus tie switch doe when switched off?
    It opens both bus tie contactors
  43. Electrical: If the RAT fails to auto-extend, what should you do?
    Switch the man pushbutton on
  44. Electrical: What illuminates a GALLEY switch FAULT light?
    An Apu generator or engine driven generator's load is greater than 100%
  45. hydraulics: Which systems have fire shut-off valves and what operates these?
    The green and yellow hydraulic system. They are closed by pushing in the ENG (1/2) fire pushbuttons
  46. hydraulics: What causes the yellow electrical hydraulic pump to run/stop automatically? And is the yellow system fully operational when the pump is running?
    • When the lever of the cargo door manual elector valve is set to open or close
    • No, it inhibits the operation of other yellow system functions, except alternate brakes & engine 2 reverse
  47. hydraulics: When does the blue hydraulic pump start automatically?
    After first engine start
  48. hydraulics: When is the PTU inhibited/ de-inhibited?
    From the first engine on untill the second master on
  49. hydraulics: When does the FAULT light (on the OHP) extinguish following a reservoir overheat?
    When the temperature in the reservoir drops
  50. hydraulics: What causes fault lights to illuminate on the OHP?
    Reservoir Low level, Reservoir Overheats, Reservoir Air pressure low, Pump pressure low, Pump overheats
  51. Pneumatics: How many automatic cabin pressure controllers are there?
  52. Pneumatics: What does the Ditching button do?
    • A close signal is send to:
    • - The outflow valve
    • - Emergency Ram Air Inlet
    • - Avionic ventilation inlet and extract valves
    • - Pack flow control valves
    • If the pressurization mode selector is in MAN the outflow alve needs to be closed manually
  53. Pneumatics: What is the Outflow Valve Position with the aircraft on the ground?
    Fully open
  54. Pneumatics: During climb, cabin ROC is a function of what
    A fixed pre-programmed law which takes into account the aircrafts actual ROC
  55. Pneumatics: When do CPC's (Cabin Pressurization Controllers) automatically change over?
    70 econd after each landing or if the operating system fails
  56. Pneumatics: What causes a FAULT light to illuminate in the MODE SEL (airco/press)?
    A fault in both automatic systems (CPC's)
  57. Pneumatics: What causes a safety valve to operate?
    A too high (>8.6 PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient) cabin pressure
  58. Pneumatics: Following structural failure at high altitude, what are the immediate actions?
    • - Crew Oxygen Masks (above FL100) ON
    • - Turn ALT sel knob & pull
    • - Turn HDG sel knob & pull
    • - Set target spd/ mach
    • - Descent (THR levers IDLE - SPD BRK FULL - Speed max)
    • - Notify ATC
  59. Pneumatics: In the 'GROUND' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation? (AiRCO/PRESS)
    The open configuration
  60. Pneumatics: In the 'GROUND' mode at low skin air temperatures, wich configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)
    The closed circuit
  61. Pneumatics: In the 'FLIGHT' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
    The intermediate configuration
  62. Pneumatics: In the 'FLIGHT' mode at low skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
    The close circuit configuration
  63. Pneumatics: What cause a BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT light to illuminate?
    • Blowing or extract pressure is low
    • Computer power supply fails
    • Smoke warning activated
  64. Pneumatics: Which extra problem causes the BLOWER FAULT light to illuminate
    Duct overheat
  65. Pneumatics: What happens when the BLOWER is switched to OVERRIDE?
    • The blower fan stops
    • System in closed circuit configuration
  66. Pneumatics: What happens when the BLOWER AND EXTRACT are switched to override
    Air flows from airconditioning system and the overboard. The external fan continues to run
  67. Pneumatics: When might you have to put both witches to OVERRIDE?
    When smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation air
  68. Pneumatics: What causes the system to transit from the GROUND mode to the FLIGHT mode?
    Take off power or lift off
  69. Pneumatics: How many motors can drive the Out Flow Valves?
  70. Pneumatics: When is cabin V/S displayed on the doors SD?
    During flight phases 5,6 and 7
  71. Pneumatics: What normally supplies the pressurisation system with the landing information
    The FMGS
  72. Pneumatics: What is the (approx) max ROD of the cabin in AUTO?
    750 feet/min
  73. Pneumatics: What is the Outflow Valve position on the takeoff run?
    A position for a rate of -400 f/min
  74. Pneumatics: What happens to the Out Flow Valve after touchdown?
    After 55 seconds it opens with 500 f/min to 0 difference
  75. Pneumatics: What is the Out Flow Valve position on the takeoff run?
  76. ECAM: What does 'INDEPENDANT OPERATION' displayed in both MCDU scratchpads mean?
    The cross talk function is lost, each FMGC will work independantly, the same entries have to be made on both MCDUs
  77. ECAM: What is meant by independant/ primary/ secondary failures?
    • Independant = Affects an isolated system and does not degrade system
    • Primary = Causes also loss of other systems
    • Secondary = System that is inoperative due to primary failure
  78. ECAM: When is the STS S.D. automatically called other than during ECAM drill?
    During slat selection during approach (config 1)
  79. ECAM: What happens if a caution is present when a warning is triggered?
    The warning is shown first (the system will prioritize)
  80. ECAM: On the right side of the E/WD, systems can be shown in amber with/ without a star. What does this mean?
    A star means it is a secondary failure due to a primary failure
  81. ECAM: During APU start, what happens to the SD, and the light on the ECAM control panel?
    • APU System display is shown during start
    • APU button on ECP is not on
  82. ECAM: Pressing the RCL button (for more than 3 seconds) on the ECP does what?
    Any caution message that is cancelled by pressing the Emergency PB is shown on the ECAM
  83. ECAM: Presing the RCL button for less than 3 seconds does what?
    It will recall all caution/ warnings that have been cleared in a normal process by pushing the CLEAR button
  84. ECAM: What happens on the SD when the ENG MODE SEL is placed at START?
    Engine page will be displayed on the SD
  85. ECAM: When does the T/O MEMO appear on the E/WD?
    2 minutes after 2nd engine start or if one engine is running and T/O config is implemented & pushing the CONFIG TEST PB
  86. ECAM: What is the effect of pressing the T/O CONFIG button?
    It will simulate the application of t/o power and test if all systems are set correctly
  87. ECAM: What causes the ENG SD to be auto selected on T/O?
    Selecting T/O power untill climb power / slat retraction
  88. ECAM: When does the T/O inhibit message appear op the E/WD?
    T/O power up to 1500 feet or untill 2 minutes after take off
  89. ECAM: How does the ALL button work?
    Pressed it cycles through all system pages at a one second interval
  90. ECAM: When does the LDG INHB messag appear on the E/WD?
    Below 2000 feet up to 80 kts after landing (phase 7 and 8)
  91. EIS RE-CONFIG: If the CPT's left EFIS screen fails, how can the ND be displayed?
    Pushing the PFD/NF XFR button will replce the ND for the PFD
  92. EIS RE-CONFIG: In Single ECAM screen oepration, how can a S.D. be displayed?
    By pressing and holding the requiered system page PB
  93. EIS RE-CONFIG: In single ECAM screen operation, how long can a SD be displayed?
    Maximum of 3 minutes
  94. EIS RE-CONFIG: What should you do if both ECAM screens fail?
    Change the ECAM/ ND XFR selector to FO or CAPT and the upper ECAM will be visible on the ND
  95. EIS RE-CONFIG: With one ECAM screen failed, how is an ADV shown?
    The letters ADV will appear on the E/WD in the memo section and by presing the SYST button on the ECP
  96. EIS RE-CONFIG: Pressing EMER CANX does what?
    Cancels master caution, warning lights and aural warnings (ECAM not affected but all amber warnings will be canceled for the remainder)
  97. EIS RE-CONFIG: How can a CANX CAUT be returned to the system?
    Press recall button for more than 3 seconds
  98. EIS RE-CONFIG: What does the speed trend arrow tell you?
    Speed in 10 seconds on a constant acceleration.
  99. EIS RE-CONFIG: What is signified by the IAS target being magenta or blue?
    Blue is selected, Magenta managed
  100. EIS RE-CONFIG: What does SRS stand for? and what does it do?
    Speed reference system. It controls pitch to maintain a vertical path.
  101. EIS RE-CONFIG: When does the SRS speed target change automatically?
    In case of an engine failure and at acceleration altitude
  102. EIS RE-CONFIG: What is signified by F and S speeds?
    • F = Minimum flap retraction speed
    • S = Minumum slat retraction speed
  103. EIS RE-CONFIG: What is Green Dot speed?
    Speed for best lift to drag ration (the engine out operating speed in clean configuration)
  104. EFIS: On the Altitude strip, a vertical red line appears on short finals. What information does it give?
    Ground reference/ field elevation (it appears below 570')
  105. EFIS: IF the FMA and ALT targets have magenta indications, what does this represent?
    There is an altitude constraint with the contraining altitude in magents above the altitude tape (differs from FCU alt)
  106. EFIS: What happen to the R.O.D. indication if n excessive R.O.D is flown?
    • The vertical speed indication becomes amber:
    • >6000 f/min
    • <2500 and 1000 RA >2000 f/min
    • Below 1000 >1200 f/min
  107. EFIS: How is the actual track of the aircraft represented?
    A green diamond
  108. EFIS: What information is given by the FPV?
    The lateral and vertical trajectory of the aircraft with respect to the gorund (track and angle)
  109. EFIS: What is always below the FPV?
    Track diamond
  110. Navigation Display: The wind arrow and digits indicate what?
    • Arrow = wind direction magnetic
    • Digits = wind direction (true) and wind speed
  111. Navigation Display: How can VOR beam bars be displayed?
    By selecting ROSE VOR mode
  112. Navigation Display: What colours are used for VOR/ADF indications?
    • ADF = Green
    • VOR = White
  113. Navigation Display: What does an underscored M (next to a VOR or ADF indication) mean?
    That the station is manually tuned by the pilot through MCDU
  114. Navigation Display: Exactly what info is displayed at the top right of the ND?
    To waypoint (ident), track, distance, ETA
  115. Navigation Display: What provides the ND with the Groundspeed and TAS info?
    Air Data and Inertial Reference System (ADIRS)
  116. Navigation Display: On the ND the TO waypoint is what colour?
  117. Navigation Display: In the plan mode, which waypoint is in the center of the ND?
    The selected MAP reference point in the MCDU (2nd line in flightplan)
  118. PFD: If on the PFD the altitude bug is 5000'(blue), where else will 5000' be displayed?
    On the FCU
  119. Recorders: When in AUTO does the recorder run?
    1.5 minute after electrical power is supplied or when at least one engine is running (up to 5 minutes after engine shutdown)
  120. Recorders: What is the EVENT button used for?
    To set an event mark after an inflight event for ease of location finding on the DFDR tape
  121. Flight Management MCDU: On the Init A page, exactly which LAT/LONG appears after a city pair is entered?
    The departure aerodrome Airfield Reference Point
  122. Flight Management MCDU: What does a triangle mean after a waypoint?
    Overfly the waypoint
  123. Flight Management MCDU: What does pressing the airport button do on the MCDU?
    MCDU will show next airport, 2nd push alternate airport, 3rd push departure airport
  124. Flight Management MCDU: What is signified by amber boxes on the MCDU?
    Data insertion is mandatory
  125. Flight Management MCDU: What happens to INIT B after engine start? How can you change weights etc in the MCDU?
    • INIT B will not be available anymore 15 seconds after engine start
    • Via the FUEL PRED page
  126. Air Conditioning: What does a Pack Controller do?
    Controls the pack flow control valve for temperature and flow demand
  127. Air Conditioning: What tells the Packs what their output temperature should be?
    The lowest demanding zone controller
  128. Air Conditioning: What could cause the Pack flow to be higher that that selected on the overhead panel?
    • 1. APU use only
    • 2. Single Pack operation
    • 3. When LO is selected but insufficient to meet demand
  129. Air Conditioning: What controls the Trim Air Valves?
    The zone controller
  130. Air Conditioning: The Zone Temperature Controller can be et to what range of temperatures?
    18 - 30 degrees Celcius
  131. Air Conditioning: After engine start, the APU bleed is switched off; what happes to the various valves?
    • 1. Bleed vaes - Open
    • 2. APU valve - Close
    • 3. Pack valve - Normal
    • 4. Crossbleed valve - Close
  132. Air Conditioning: What happens when the Ram Air Valve is opened?
    • Ambient air is delivered to mixer unit
    • If cabin pressure is below 1 PSI, outflow valve 50% (if not in manual)
  133. Air Conditioning: What happens when a duct overheat occurs?
    The hot air pressure regulating valves & trim air valves automatically close
  134. Air Conditioning: If the zone controller fails completely, what controls the temperatures? What message is displayed on the SD?
    The anti ice valve will control the temperature and no ECAM signals present
  135. Air Conditioning: What limitations apply to opening of the Ram Air Valve?
    Open is the cabin pressure is less than 1 PSI
  136. Air Conditioning: What is the 12 o Clock setting of the temperature controller for the cargo?
    15 degrees celcius
  137. Air Conditioning: When do the Pack Ram Air Inlet and Outlet flaps close?
    During take off (t/o thrust untill lift off) and landing (touchdown up to 70 kts)
  138. Air Conditioning: How are the zone temperatures individually controlled?
    By use of the Trim Air Valves
  139. Air Conditioning: What happens to the airconditioning system during engine start?
    The pack flow control valve will close
  140. Air Conditioning: When does a Pack overheat FAULT light (on the overhead panel) extinguish?
    When the overheat situation disappeared
  141. Fire Protection: How many fire bottles per engine/ APU?
    2 bottles for each engine, 1 bottle for APU
  142. Fire Protection: What happens if a lavatory waste bin catches fire?
    A self actuated halon extinguisher is discharged in the bin when the temperature reaches 79 degrees Celcius
  143. Fire Protection: How many fire bottles for CARGO fire extinguishing?
  144. Fire Protection: What are the indications for an APU FIRE test?
    • - Master Warning Light illuminates
    • - Continuous repetitive chime
    • - APU fire PB sw illuminated
    • - APU fire warning on ECAM
  145. Fire Protection: What are the indications for an ENG FIRE test?
    • - Master warning
    • - Continuous repetitive chime
    • - Eng Fire PB illuminated
    • - Squib and DISCH light illuminated
    • - Fire LT on eng control panel illuminated
    • - Engine Fire warning on ECAM E/WD
  146. Fire Protection: A red disc in the aircraft skin near the APU indicates what?
    It is servicable/ not discharged
  147. Fire Protection: What happens when a FIRE switch is released?
    Arms fire ext squibs and illuminates Squib lights
  148. Fire Protection: Agent DISCH (amber) indicates what?
    Low bottle pressure
  149. Fire Protection: During cargo smoke test, how many DISCH lights are illuminated?
  150. Fire Protection: When does the AVIONICS SMOKE indication dissapear?
    Smoke no longer detected
  151. Fire Protection: Is fire detection available if a loop fails?
    Yes, the remaining loop operates independantly. The FDU generators a fire warning when a fire is detected in the operative loop
  152. Fire Protection: What happens if both loops fail within 5 seconds?
    A fire warning will be generated, it could be both loops burned completely through
  153. Fire Protection: On the external fire panel, what does the APU SHUT OFF switch do?
    Silences external horn and confirms auto extinguishing of the APU & discharges the bottle
  154. Fuel: What do the transfer valves do?
    They allow the transfer of fuel from the outer wing to the inner wing tank.
  155. Fuel: REFUELG on the E/WD means what?
    The fuselage refueling control panel door is open
  156. Fuel: What does CTR TK FEEDG mean on the E/WD?
    At least one center tank pump is energized
  157. Fuel: What causes before T/O the CTR pumps to automatically shut down?
    Slat extension
  158. Fuel: When do the CTR pumps resume operation after T/O when they have been shut down?
    After slat retraction
  159. Fuel: How are the IDG's cooled?
    By fuel
  160. Fuel: How is space made, in the wing tanks, to receive fuel from the IDG cooling system when the CTR tank is not empty?
    When wing tank is overfull, the CTR tank pumps are on, when wing tank is underfull, the CTR tank pumps are off.
  161. Fuel: How many transfer valves?
  162. Fuel: When do the transfer valves open?
    They open automatically when the inner tank fuel reaches low level, enabling the fuel to drain from outer to inner tank.
  163. Fuel: What is indicated by OUTER TK FUEL XFRD on the E/WD?
    One more transfer valve opens
  164. Fuel: What is indicated by a half box (amber) on the FUEL quantity on the E/WD?
    Displayed quantity is not all useable
  165. Fuel: On the SD what is indicated by the FOB being boxed (amber)?
    Part of fuel is not useable
  166. Fuel: On the SD what is indicated by a tank fuel quantity indication being boxed amber?
    All fuel is not useable
  167. Fuel: The amber dashes through a fuel quantity indicates what?
    The FQIC is in a degraded mode. Loss of accuracy is between +/- 20 kilo's to +/- 400 kilo's
  168. Fuel: With tanks full and all pumps ON, which tank(s) is (are) feeding the engines?
    Center fuel tanks
  169. Fuel: What is indicated on the SD, by a fuel pump indication of cross line (green)
    Correct situation for auto operation
  170. Fuel: What is the minimum fuel quantity for take off?
    1500 Kg's (no wing tank low level on ECAM)
  171. Power Plant: When, and for how long, are FADEC's powered during cockpit preperation?
    When the aircraft is first powered up for 5 minutes
  172. Power Plant: When are the FADEC's next powered after first power up?
    When the engine mode selector is put to start
  173. Power Plant: On the EGT, what does the amber tick indicate?
    Max EGT index
  174. Power Plant: When is the fuel used set to zero?
    When the engine master switch is set to the ON position
  175. Power Plant: What happens at 50% N2 (during start)?
    Starting valve closes and igniter off (if on the ground)
  176. Power Plant: How can you tell that the start sequence has finished?
    The N2 grey box is back to black
  177. Power Plant: On the N1 or EPR, when may a cyan arc appear? What does it mean?
    When the E/THR is engages, the difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust
  178. Power Plant: When does IDLE flash (between the EPR gauges)?
    When both engines are at idle
  179. Power Plant: What does REV in amber and green indicate?
    • Amber: Any one reverse door is unstowed or unlocked
    • Green: All four doors are fully deployed
  180. Power Plant: What does FADEC do during a manual start?
    • - Opens/ closes start valve
    • - Opens fuel valves
    • - operates ignition (both)
    • - No autostart abort
  181. Power Plant: What do the MAN START switches control?
    Opening of the start valves
  182. Power Plant: What happens when the MASTER switch is selected ON?
    • LP Fuel valve opens
    • HP Fuel valve opens
    • Igniters come on
    • >N2 50% valves closes
  183. Power Plant: What closes the start valve and when?
    FADEC, when 50%N2
  184. Power Plant: What causes the FAULT light illuminate on the engine panel?
    • - Start valve fault
    • - An automatic start abort
    • - A disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and it's commanded position
  185. Power Plant: What does FADEC do following a 'wet' automatic start?
    It aborts the start, shuts down starter, igniters and HP valve and cranks the engine dry automatically
  186. Power Plant: When the engine is running, what causes the igniters to operate automatically?
    • - T/O thrust set untill slats up after T/O
    • - Landing: slats 1 untill the landing
    • - With an engine failure
  187. Power Plant: What does CHECK (amber) on the EGT/N1/N2/FF indicate?
    There is a discrepancy between the values on the FADEC DMC bus and the displayed values
  188. Power Plant: What does the CRANK position of the MODE SEL do?
    It cranks the engine qithout ignition
  189. Doors: How long are the escape ropes?
    Long enough to reach the ground from either side of the aircraft
  190. Doors: What are the indications, on the doors SD, of slides armed disarmed?
    The SLIDE legend appears next to the door on the ECAM page to indicate the slides are armed (in white letters)
  191. Doors: What is the maximum speed for opening a cockpit window?
    200 Kts
  192. Doors: What is the maximum wind speed for a cabin door?
    65 Kts
  193. Cabin Equipment: What deploys the overwing escape slide?
    Removal/ opening of the overwing emergency exit doors
  194. Cabin Equipment: What do the whie indicator and red indicator (below the door window) signify?
    • White: Slide is armed
    • Red: residual cabin pressure is present
  195. Cabin Equipment: What happens when a door is opened from the outside?
    It disarms the door and escape slide automatically
  196. Cabin Equipment: What happens if the EVA switch is to CPT only, and the purser initiates an EVAC command from the cabin?
    The alers may only be activated from the cockpit. If one of the cabin CMD's is pressed only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
  197. Flight Controls: What is indicated by a blue line on the rudder part of the SD?
    The rudder trim position
  198. Flight Controls: What does the Rudder Travel Limiter do?
    It limits the deflection of the rudder as a function the speed (between 160 and 380 kts)
  199. Flight Controls: Which spoilers are used for ROLL/ GD SPOIL/ SPEEDBRAKES
    • Roll: 2-3-4-5
    • Speedbrake: 2-3-4
    • Ground spolers: 1-2-3-4-5
  200. How many SFCC's? How many channels?
    2 SFCC's. Each SFCC has a channel for slat and for flaps (2 channels each)
  201. Flight Controls: What happens if both sidesticks are moved at the same time?
    • - The inputs are additive
    • - Aural warning 'DUAL INPUT'
    • - Both green lights flash
  202. What happens if a sidestick priority button is pressed and held down? What happens if a sidestick priority button is held down for more then 40 seconds?
    • 1) It deactivates the other sidestick
    • 2) The other sidestick is latched out and the pb can be released without losing priority
  203. How is a de-activated sidestick re-activated?
    By pressing the priority pb
  204. Flight Controls: What is demanded by a roll/ pitch input on the sidestick?
    Roll: A rate of roll/ Pitch: a load factor
  205. Flight Controls: What happens to the flight path angle of the aircraft if the sidestick is put at neutral?
    Remains constant
  206. Flight Controls: What are the protections available?
    • - Load factor
    • - Pitch attitude
    • - Angle of attack
    • - High speed
    • - Bank angle
    • - low energy
    • - load alleviation
    • - Roll attitude
    • - Alpha protection
  207. Flight Controls: What are the G protection limits?
    • Flaps up: -1G / +2.5G
    • Flaps ext: 0G / +2.0G
  208. Flight Controls: What are the pitch attitude limits?
    • Nose up (config 0-3) 30 degrees/ 25 degrees (lowspeed)
    • Nose up (config full) 25 degrees/ 20 degrees (low speed)
    • Nose down 15 degrees
  209. Flight Controls: What is the lowest speed achievable with the sidestick fully back?
    Alpha MAX
  210. Flight Controls: In Alpha prot. what does sidestick movement command?
    It commands Angle of Attack
  211. Flight Controls: What happen if, at alpha max, the sidestick is released neutral?
    The AoA will return to Alpha prot
  212. Flight Controls: What happens if, in HI SPD protection, the sidestick is pushed forward?
  213. Flight Controls: What happens to the FD/FMA if more than 45 degr. bank is applied?
    Flight directors disappear and assiociated FMA. It reappears when the bank angle is reduced
  214. Flight Controls: What is the maximum bank angle 'hands off'?
    33 degrees
  215. Flight Controls: What is inhibited at more than 33 degrees?
    Auto trim (pitch compensation)
  216. Flight Controls: How do pitch/roll control in Alternate law compare with normal law? What happens to turn coordination? What happens when the gear is put down?
    Pitch remains the same, Roll as in direct law - a higher rate of roll. Turn coordination is lost and the pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals. When gear comes down, the aircraft goes into Direct law.
  217. Flight Controls: What happens to Pitch and Roll protection in Alternate law?
    They are lost
  218. Flight Controls: Alpha protection is lost in alternate law. What replaces it? And what is the top of the barber pole now showing?
    Replaced by a red/black barbers pole and the top is Vsw (still warning speed)
  219. Flight Controls: In alternate law, what happens at Vsw?
    A gentle nose down signal is introduced and stall warning "STALL' and crickets are heard
  220. Flight Controls: In alternate law, can you stall the aircraft?
    Yes, Alpha protection is inop
  221. Flight Controls: Is Alpha floor available in Alternate law?
  222. Flight Controls: In alternate law, how does HI SPD stability work? Can it be overridden?
    Above Vmo or Mmo a nose up demand is introduced. it can be overridden.
  223. Flight Controls: In direct law, control deflection is proportional to what?
    Stick deflection
  224. Flight Controls: Are there any protections/ stabilities in direct law?
    There are no protections available
  225. Flight Controls: What is indicated (amber) on the FMA's in direct law?
  226. Flight Controls: How is all yaw controlled in direct law?
    By use of the rudder pedals
  227. Flight Controls: What causes reversion to Mechanical Back Up?
    A temporary loss of electrical power and loss of all ELAC's and SEC's
  228. Flight Controls: What appears on the FMA in red in Mechanical back up?
  229. Flight Controls: How is pitch controlled in Mechanical Back up?
    Trim wheel
  230. Flight Controls: How is roll controlled in Mechanical Back up?
    By use of the rudders
  231. Flight Controls: In the ground mode (normal law), flight control movement is proportional to what?
    Side stick deflection
  232. Flight Controls: After T/O (flaps 3), what is the next flap selection?
    Flaps 1
  233. Flight Controls: How does automatic flap retraction work?
    With config 1+F set, the flaps retract to 0 automatically at 210 Kts (bfeore Vfe)
  234. Flight Controls: Is there any automatic slat retraction?
  235. Flight Controls: What is the max speedbrake available with A/P engaged?
    Half speedbrake lever deflection
  236. Flight Controls: What is Vfe NEXT? How is it represented?
    Vfe NEXT is the Vfe corresponding to the next flap lever position. It is represented by an amber =
  237. Flight Controls: Descending through 30 ft RA on the approach, what happens to pitch control?
    The aircraft will automatically pitch down from the attitude it was on at 50ft to -2 degrees in 8 seconds. This is to achieve a normal flare technique for the pilot
  238. Flight Controls: What triggers ground spoiler deployment?
    Weight on wheels and thrust to idle
  239. Flight Controls: What happens tot the spoilers if a GA is performed after touchdown?
    Automatically retracted when at least one thrust lever is advanced to 20 degrees
  240. Flight Controls: How many hydraulic actuators are there for the AIL/ELEV/RUDDER?
    • Ailerons: 2
    • Elevators: 2
    • Rudder: 3
  241. Flight Controls: If both ELAC's fail, how is roll control achieved?
    through spoilers
  242. Flight Controls: If both elevators are faulty, what happens to them?
    Go into centering mode
  243. Flight Controls: What happens if a spoiler fault is detected?
    Symmetrical spoiler is inhibited
  244. Flight Controls: What happens to a spoiler that loses hydraulic pressure?
    The spoiler retains the deflection it had at the time of the loss or lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.
  245. Flight Controls: What happens if both channels of an SFCC fail?
    Slats and flaps both operate at half speed
  246. Flight Controls: On the spoiler indications, an amber triangle means what?
    Spoiler fault detected
  247. Flight Controls: What are the initial actions in the event of a rejected takeoff?
    • - Call stop
    • - Thrust levers IDLE
    • - Reverse thrust MAX AVAIL
    • When stopped:
    • - Parking brake ON
    • - Crew announcement CREW AT STATIONS
  248. Ice and Rain: Which part of the wing is anti/iced=
    Slats 3/4/5
  249. Ice and Rain: Where does engine anti ice air come from?
    The high pressure compressor
  250. Ice and Rain: What happens if there is no electrical control of the engine anti-ice valve?
    The valve opens automatically
  251. Ice and Rain: What happens if there is no electrical control of the Wing Anti Ice valve?
    Closes automatically
  252. Ice and Rain: Which probes are not heated on the ground?
  253. Ice and Rain: What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
    230 Kts
  254. Lights: Which lights are located on the nosewheel?
    Taxi and takeoff lights and runway turn off lights
  255. Lights: What happens to the lights on the nosewheel when the gear is retracted?
    The lights will go off regardless of switch position
  256. Lights: What are the wing lights for?
    To help determine if ice is building up on the leading edge and engine intakes
  257. Lights: What is the status of the landing lights in the OFF position?
    The landing lights are off, but extended
  258. Oxygen: 1) What should you do if the oxygen pressure indications has a half-box (amber)? 2) And if REGUL LO PR is indicated?
    • 1)Refer to FCOM 3 limitations, to check if pressure is sufficient for the flight (<1500psi)
    • 2)The pressure is too low for flight
  259. Oxygen: How is emergency oxygen flow tested?
    By pressing the Reset/Test control slide and the emergency pressure selector simultaneously and observe sound of oxygen flow and blinker.
  260. Oxygen: Squeezing the red clips does what?
    Inflates the harnass
  261. Oxygen: What is the significance of the OXY ON white flags?
    The supply valve in the stowage compartment is still open.
  262. Oxygen: on the OHP, SYS ON indicates what?
    The passenger oxygen system has been activated
  263. Oxygen: How do passengers initiate oxygen flow? How long does it last?
    By pulling the mask toward the face, which releases a pin and starts the mechanical reaction. Approx. 13 minutes
  264. Oxygen: How does the over pressure selector work?
    It creates an overpressure, which elliminates condensation and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask.
  265. Autoflight: Which FCU window is never dashed?
    Altitude window
  266. Autoflight: You are in a managed mach at high altitude. How do you change to selected speed?
    • 1. Pull the FCU speed selector knob
    • 2. Push the FCU spd/mach transfer button
  267. Autoflight: What is the effect of pushing the APPR button on the FCU?
    it arms/engages the ILS or NON-P approach
  268. Autoflight: When do columns 2 and 3 share common modes?
  269. Autoflight: When is the auto pilot first available for use?
    5 seconds after lift off or 100 ft RA
  270. Autoflight: What happens to the FMA and IAS bug if auto pilots and FD's are switched off?
    • - FMA's will disappear
    • - Speedbug will indicate current speed (blue)
    • - A/THR reverts to speed/mach mode if it was engaged
  271. Autoflight: If the A/P's and FD's are switched of and then back on again, what will the FMA show?
    - Basic engagement mode: V/S-HDG or FPA-TRK
  272. Auto thrust: With the A/THR active, actual thrust will be limited to what?
    TLA. The maximum computet thrust for that setting
  273. Auto thrust: When does ''LVR CLB'' flash on the FMA?
    @ thrus reduction altitude to remind that CL needs to be selected
  274. Auto thrust: In CL detent with A/THR on, what happens when the thrust levers are moved forward of the climb detent?
    A/THR will become armed
  275. Auto thrust: Why should A/THR be switched off on the instinctive buttons?
    If switched off through FCU it will provide: A master caution / single chime / ecam message
  276. Auto thrust:What happens if the A/THR instinctive buttons are held for more than 15 seconds?
    Auto thrust will not be available for the remainder of the flight (untill next FMGC power up)
  277. Autoflight: On the MCDU a * (magenta/amber) signifies?
    • - Magenta: A contstraint and that the prediciton will meet the contraint
    • - Amber: A constrains and that the prediction will NOT meet the constraint
  278. Autoflight: If the HDG knob is pulled during a managed climb, what happens to the constraint and the FLPLAN indication on the ND?
    revert to selected mode so constraints ignored and flightplan on ND will become dottet/dashed
  279. Autoflight:In a CLB or DES, what happens in th A/THR FMA as soon as ALT* is shown in the vertical FMA?
    Speed/mach mode
  280. Autoflight:What happens if you press the LS button on the FCU panel?
    ILS scale will be represented on the PFD
  281. Autoflight: What is displayed on the top centre of the ND?
    Type of the selected approach
  282. Autoflight: When is ILS tuning frozen?
    @ 700 ft RA with APP mode armed or engaged (FD + A/P need to be engaged)
  283. Autoflight: When does the ''LAND'' FMA appears and how can you get out of LAND mode?
    • - Below 400 ft RA
    • - Only by performing a go around
  284. Autoflight: The descent profile should lead you to what IAS at 1000'above the rwy?
  285. Autoflight: What does DECELERATE on the FMA mean?
    If you are beyond TOD and above the vertical profile
  286. Autoflight: What is signified by tge split speedbug in a managed descent?
    A buffer to increase or decrease speed by + or - 20 kts to remain on the vertical profile
  287. Autoflight: The message MORE DRAG on the FMA is due to?
    A/C abover vertical profile and can not meet the next constraint
  288. Autoflight: What causes the memo SPEEDBRAKE?
    That speedbrake is extended with N1 above 50%
  289. Autoflight: What happens to altitude indication on the PFD when the A/C goes below MDA?
    The green altitude indication will change to amber
  290. Autoflight: What is G/A TRK exactly?
    That the track @ the toga engagement will be maintained during the go around
  291. Autoflight: On a NON-P approach what happens if the APP button on the FCU is pressed?
    It will arm the approach in ''FINAL APP''
  292. Autoflight: On a managed NON-P approach what do the FMA show during final descent?
    First ''FINAL APP'' and below MDA-50 ''FPA TRK'' because of A/P disconnect
  293. Autoflight: On a NON-P approach what happens with A/P and FMA's if the a/c descends below MDA-50?
    • - A/P disconnects automatically
    • - FMA announce ''FPA TRK''
  294. Autoflight: When will ''SPEED SPEED SPEED'' be heard? (every 5 sec)
    When energy is below a certain threshold. Thrust is required to regain a positive flight path angle
  295. Autoflight: What triggers ALPHA FLOOR and must the A/THR be engaged first?
    • - High angle of attack triggers aFOOR
    • - Side stick deflection >14�ANU
    • - A/THR will activate automatically
  296. Autoflight: When is windshear protection available? When is it triggered and what do you see and hear?
    • - @ T/O from lift up to 1300 ft
    • - @ LDG from 1300 ft up to 50 ft
    • - Only in config 1,2,3, FULL
    • - Red ''WINDSHEAR'' message on the PFD (15 sec)
    • - 3x aural ''WINDSHEAR''
  297. Autoflight: What is MINI GROUNDSPEED?
    • To make optimum use of the a/c inertia by maintaining a constant groundspeed
    • (Vapp+5+(AHWC-THWC)
  298. Autoflight: In an idle OP DES you fail to pitch down enough to follow the FD, what happens eventually?
    • - Both FD's disappear @ Vls-2
    • - OP DES will revert to SPEED mode
  299. Autoflight: Climbing to FL250 (FCU): At FL225 the FCU is set to FL220. What happens?
    - The vertical mode changes to V/S with current ROC
  300. Autoflight: If only FD1 is switched off, what happens to the capt FMA's?
    FD will disappear from captain side only
  301. Autoflight: Before deliberately switching off the A/THR, you should line up what with what?
    Allign the dounut with the current thurst setting
  302. Autoflight: What happens if one of the FCU channels fail?
    The second channel will take over all the functions
  303. BLEED: How many BMC's are there and What happens if one of them fails?
    2 Bleed Monitoring Computers. If one fails the other can take over most of the functions
  304. BLEED: How is the bleed air temperature regulated and to what temperature output?
    - colled to 200�C through an air to air heat exchanger
  305. BLEED: On the SD when is a GND triangle displayed?
    Always when A/C is on the ground
  306. BLEED: Which enginge bleed has priority? engine or apu?
    APU and the engines
  307. BLEED: Does the overhead panel fault light extinguish when temperature drops following an overheat?
    Yes, it will go out automatically
  308. Autoflight: What is signified by _ _ _ _� on the FCU?
    Managed mode
  309. Autoflight: What happens if you push the V/S knob?
    An immediate level off
  310. Autoflight: What generic information is displayed on the 3 FMA lines?
    • 1. Engaged modes
    • 2. Armed modes
    • 3. Special messages
  311. Autoflight: When should both A/P's should be on at the same time?
    When the ILS is armed by pushing the APP button on FCU
  312. Autoflight: Why should the A/P not be switched off on the FCU?
    It generates warnings and ecam action is required
  313. Autoflight: On the FMA's, 1FD2 or -F2 means?
    FD 1 and 2 in use or only FD 2 in use
  314. Autoflight: What do the FMA's read if a lower altitude is selected and the FCU alt knob is pulled?
    ''THR IDLE / OP DES''
  315. Autoflight: What happens if you fly over a magenta circled ''D'' on the ND when in managed NAV?
    The approach mode will activate automatically when in NAV, APPR NAV, LOC mode
  316. Autoflight: What is the effect of activating the approach phase in the MCDU?
    It will decellerate to green dot speed
  317. Autoflight: At what radio altitude is ''RETARD'' heard?
    • - 10 ft RA for an autoland
    • - 20 ft RA for manual landing
  318. Autoflight: In a managed descent the HDG knob is pulled. What will the vertical FMA announce and what will happen to ALT constraints?
    • - ''DES'' will revert to ''V/S'' (current v/s)
    • - contraints will be ingnored
  319. Autoflight: How are the TOGA modes engaged?
    By setting at least one thrust lever to TOGA detent
  320. Autoflight: What is strung after a go around?
    Another approach of the same type
  321. IF the V.DEV in one dot fly-down, how high are you?
    100 ft
  322. Autoflight: What is the minimum speed possible with A/THR on?
  323. Autoflight: When is ALPHA FLOOR available?
    From lift off untill 100 ft RA on the approach
  324. Autoflight: On reaching ALPHA PROT, what tripps off?
    @ APLHA PROT +1� the A/P will disconnect
  325. Autoflight: What happens if you climb/descent with an excessive V/S?
    It reverts to an OPEN CLIMB/DESCENT
  326. Autoflight: When does the A/THR automatically switch on? Will it be armed or engaged?
    - When reaching APLHA FLOOR and it will be engaged
  327. Autoflight: What is meant by A/THR (blue/white) on the FMA?
    • - Blue = ARMED
    • - White = ENGAGED
  328. Autoflight: What happens to A/THR if thrust levers are moved to idle?
    A/THR will disconnect
  329. Autoflight: In CLB/OP CLB you fail to pitch up enough to follow the FD. What happens eventually?
    The A/C will accelerate and @ Vmax +4 the FD will disappear
  330. Autoflight: What happens to the IAS bug if the FD's and A/P's are switched off?
    It will become blue
  331. Autoflight: What is meant by DUAL/SINGLE/INDEPENDANT modes?
    • - Dual = MCDU's crosscheck
    • - Single = Both MCDU's connected to the same FMGC
    • - Independant = MCDU's work separately
  332. Autoflight: Both FCU's fail.
    • A. What is on the FMA = THR LK
    • B. How do you regain thrust control = Move levers manually
    • C. What is displayed bottom right PFD = Pressure (1013)
    • D What will happen to ND range/mode = Rose Nav 80NM
    • E. Which navaids can be displayed = VOR 1 & ADF 2
  333. Autoflight: What happens to thrust when APLHA FLOOR is annunciated?
    TOGA thrust automatically
  334. APU: What happens if the START button is pressed immediately after the MASTER button is pressed?
    Nothing until APU flap open. Thereafter it will start
  335. APU: Why would the APU continue to run after being switched off?
    A cooling down period
  336. APU: What happens if excessive EGT is sensed?
    It will automatically shut down
  337. APU: What is the max altitude for a battery start?
    25.000 ft
  338. APU: What causes the FLAP to open? What does the message FLAP OPEN mean exactely?
    The MASTER switch will open the flap and it indicates that the flap is FULLY OPEN
  339. APU: AVAIL light on the push button means?
    APU is available (N=>99.5% or 2 seconds after N=95%)
  340. APU: Auto shutdown is available during which flight phases?
  341. APU: What would you do if the SD showed LO OIL LVL?
    The APU can still run for 10 hrs.
  342. APU: What are the APU pack limitation altitudes?
    • - 15.000 ft for 2 packs
    • - 22.500 ft for 1 pack
  343. APU: What is the maximum altitude for other that a battery start?
    41.000 ft
  344. APU: When will the aircraft automatically start a CLB/DESC from level flight?
    After passing a constraint
  345. Navigation: On theOHP what must be switched ON in order to get Air Data?
    The rotary selector switches
  346. Navigation: When does the ON BAT light illuminate?
    Briefly during self test and when the ADIRS are on batteries only
  347. Navigation: When does the ALIGN light flash?
    • 1) Alignment fault
    • 2) No present position is entered within 10 minutes after selecting navigate on selector switches
    • 3) Position error with last known position (more than 1 degree of LAT/LONG)
    • 4) Aircraft moved during alignment
  348. Navigation: On the EFIS, where are ILS1 and ILS2 displayed?
    • ILS1 on PFD1 and ND2
    • ILS2 on PFD2 and ND1
  349. Navigation: In the PLAN mode (ECP) what cannot be displayed on the ND?
    • Data on navaids and on their characteristics and associated bearing pointers
    • WX radar
  350. Navigation: What is displayed at the bottom corners of the ND?
    Tuned navaid (AD/ VOR), DME, Mode of tuning (M/R), Bearing pointer symbol
  351. Navigation: If both FMGS fail, how are navaids tuned?
    Through the radio management panel (RMP) on the pedastal
  352. Navigation: In RMP tuning, which navaids can be tuned from RMP1/RMP2 (and RMP3)?
    • VOR1, VOR2, ADF1, ADF2 (when fitted, easy not), ILS, MLS
    • RMP3 is not available
  353. Navigation: Which ADIRU supplies the DDRMI?
  354. Navigation: What will inhibit GPWS warnings?
    Stall warnings, Windshear warnings, presing the SYS PB sw ont he GPWS panel to off
  355. Navigation: What happens to GPWS wasrinings if the loudspeakers are turned off?
    GPWS are still heard
  356. Navigation: When should LDG FLAP3 be selected ON?
    When intentionally landing with flap3
  357. Navigation: When should FLAP MODE be selected OFF?
    When landing with an abnormal flap setting is requiered (in abnormal situations)
  358. Navigation: What produces the information on the ND when using EGPWS? How is the information displayed in order to prevent confusion with the WX-radar?
    • The TAD
    • Weather radar tilt is repaced by a blue TERR on the ND and sweep is from the center outwards to both ND sides
  359. Navigation: If TERR ON NOD is indicating ON, what happens to the weather radar?
    Not displayed
  360. Navigation: If the TERR function of the EGPWS fails, or is switched off, what happens to GPWS?
    It does not effect basic GPWS mode
  361. Navigation: When will TERR ON ND automatically swith ON?
    When an alerrt (a caution or warning) is generated
  362. Navigation: EGPWS uses which altitude information and which position information?
    It uses the captains baro information for altitude and FMS1 for position
  363. Navigation: What should you do if there is a NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE?
    Perform an accuracy check by comparing displayed values with raw data
  364. Navigation: What should you do in response to a EGPWS 'PULL UP' alert?
    • - A/P - OFF
    • - Pull up (side stick hard back)
    • - Thrust levers - TOGA
    • - Speed brake lever - Check retracted
    • - Bank - wings level
  365. Navigation: What should you do in response to a windshear warning in flight?
    • - Maintain configuration
    • - Thrust TOGA
    • - A/P ON
    • - SRS FOLLOW
    • - Pitch to 17,5 degrees up
  366. Navigation: When is RA data displayed?
    When the aircraft is below 2500 feet
  367. Navigation: How long does an IRS allignment take?
    10 minutes (30 seconds in fast alignment)
  368. Navigation: How can LAT/LONG be adjusted on the MCDU?
    On the INIT A page by typing in the scratchpad or by the up and down keys
  369. Navigation: How is a rapid alignment done? and when?
    • Switch Off/On the selector switches within 5 seconds
    • Any flight except the first flight
  370. Navigation: What causes the QNH to pulse on the PFD?
    • When the selection made by the pilot is not correct;
    • - STD not selected above TA
    • - STD still selected in APPR, below TL or 2500 feet RA if TL not available
  371. Navigation: How is an accuracy check carried out?
    By comparing raw data from tuned navaids with FM computed data on ND or MCDU prog page
  372. Navigation: If CHECK ATT appears on PFD, what should you do?
    Check both PFD's against the STBY HOR to identify faulty PFD. Switch the faulty side to ON 3 with the ATT HDG switch
  373. Navigation: What is indicated by a FAIl light on the MCDU?
    The MCDU has failed
  374. Navigation: When the ILS is tuned on an RMP, what information is NOT available
    DME information
  375. Navigation: Apart from the E/WD, where are TCAS failures diplayed?
    On the ND and PFD (next to the alt. tape)
  376. Navigation: What information may be available if the IR rotary selectors are set to ATT?
    Only attitude and heading information
  377. Navigation: How do you test all the GPWS aural functions?
    By pressing the GPWS pb on the glareshield
  378. Navigation: In order for TCAS to detetct an intruder, what must the intruder have?
    A transponder
  379. Navigation: What is indicated by TERR BY on the E/WD?
    The aircraft positions accuracy (provided by FMS) is not sufficient to allow enhanced TCF and TAD modes
  380. Navigation: What is indicated by TERR AHEAD ont he ND?
    A amber caution for terrain awareness
Card Set
Dennis en Chris 2