A320 flashcards.txt

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  1. With only a few passengers on the aircraft the pack flow selector should be set to LOW, why?
    To decrease the bleed air demand from the engines and therefore to save fuel.
  2. On the ECAM COND page ALTN MODE is displayed, what happened?
    Channel 1 of the zone controller has failed and channel 2 has taken over, thus the hot air and trim air valves have closed automatically.
  3. During taxi with a full load of passengers and in a high temperature area, how should the pack flow be set?
    To HI, in orer to help reduce the cabin temperature.
  4. In the Air Conditioning system what is the function of the TRIM AiR valve?
    To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air.
  5. For the normal operation fo the CARGO COND SYSTEM;
    The pilot ensures that there are no lights illuminated on the PB SW and that the temperature is set as requiered.
  6. If the pack flow control valves close, what will be the subsequent position of the trim air valves and hot air valve?
    • Trim Air Valve's: Close
    • Hot Air Valve: Close
  7. Why are two different temperature values displayed for each zone of the aircraft?
    The lower value is the temperature of the air entering a zone (DUCT inlet temperature). The upper value is the actual zone temperature monitored by the zone control computer.
  8. What is the function of the CABIN AIR FANS?
    Reducing the Bleed Air Requierement and therefore saving fuel.
  9. In the CABIN PRESSURIZATION system, the function of the safety valves is...
    Protect against excessive differential pressure.
  10. On the CABIN PRESS panel with a LDG ELEV set manually, is there still an automatic control of the cabin altitude?
    Yes, SYS1 is still controlling the cabin altitude through the safety valve.
  11. In the Cabin Pressurization system, what is the maximum allowable differential pressure?
    7.6 PSI
  12. Regarding the CABIN PRESSURIZATION system, what should be the differential pressure on the ground, while at the gate?
    0 PSI
  13. On the CABIN PRESSURIZATION system, the safety valves...
    Can not be controlled manually and are fully automatic.
  14. On the CAB PRESS panel, pushing on the MOD SEL pb sw gives control over...?
    The outflow valve
  15. On the CAB PRESS panel, with the MOD SEL set to MAN and the MAN V/S CTL held in the DN position, the outflow valve....
    Closes, the cabin altitude drops.
  16. On the ECAM E/WD page, after engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does this mean?
    It is an indication that an aircraft system requieres maintenance attention.
  17. The upper ECAM DU failed. To see the different system pages on the lower DU, you have to?
    Press and hold the correspoding button on the ECP.
  18. Both ECAM screens failed. What happens to the E/WD indication?
    The E/WD is automatic transferred to one of the ND's
  19. On the ECAM SYSTEM in case of a failure of both FWC's...
    MASTER CAUTION light, MASTER WARNING light, aural warnings and ECAM cautions and warnings are lost
  20. On the ECAM STATUS page, what does a CANCELLED CAUTION mean?
    The failure message has been previously cancelled with the EMER CANC pb
  21. When is NW STRG DISC (amber/green) displayed?
    • Green: When the towing selector is engaged
    • Amber: When the towing selector is engaged and one engine is running
  22. When, on takeoff does NW steering become inhibited?
  23. How much NW steering is available through the rudder pedals?
    6 degrees left or right
  24. How much NW steering is available through the steering handwheel?
    75 degrees left or right
  25. When does AUTOBRAKE disarm on takeoff?
    10 seconds after lift off
  26. What is indicated on the SD wheel page by REL (blue) and green dashes on each side of the wheel number?
    That the antiskid function is working
  27. When does the DECEL light illuminate?
    When the actual deceleration rate is 80% of the programmed rate
  28. How can AUTOBRAKE be deselected?
    Apply foot pressure to the pedals before 50 kts
  29. With PARK BRAKE set, is pedal braking still active?
    no, it deactivates all other braking modes
  30. After gravity extension, what happens to the gear doors and N/W steering?
    The doors remain open and N/W steering is not available
  31. What is indicated by a green/ amber arc on the wheel SD?
    • Green arc= Brake temperature exceeds 100 degrees on hottest brake
    • Amber arc= Brake temperature exceeds 300 degrees on hottest brake
  32. What is the maximum brake pressure when the A/SKID is inop?
    1000 PSI, to prevent locking the wheels
  33. What are the immediate actions if the brakes fail with AUTOBRAKE ON?
    Press the brake pedals (this overrides the autobrake)
  34. What are the immediate actions if the brakes fail with AUTOBRAKE OFF?
    • Reverse - Max
    • Brake pedals - Release
    • A/skid N/WS - OFF
    • Brake predals - PRESS
    • Max brake pressure - 1000 PSI
  35. When the ECAM says L/G----GRVTY EXTN what should you do?
    • Pull & turn gravity gear extension
    • Landing gear lever down
    • Check the DOWN indications
  36. What is the limiting speed for Tyres (groundspeed)?
    195 Kts
  37. What is the limiting speed for Gear Up/Down selection?
    • Up = 220 Kts
    • Down = 250 Kts
  38. What is the limiting speed for gear locked down?
    280 Kts/ M0.67
  39. How long can the yellow hydraulic accumuator hold the parking brake ON?
    A minimum of 12 hours
  40. What is the maximum yellow brake pressure?
    1000 PSI
  41. What is the connection between the steering handwheel signals and rudder steering signals?
    They are all additive
  42. What delays occur in LO/MED/MAX before braking starts?
    • LO = 4 sec's after spoiler deployment
    • MED = 2 sec's after spoiler deployment
    • MAX = immediately after spoiler deployment
  43. How many green triangles (on the SD) confirm that the gear is locked down?
    3 total (2 for each landing gear)
  44. When does the BRK FAN illuminate HOT?
    When the temperature of the brake is >300 degrees
  45. On the GEAR panel, what is indicated by a red UNLK light?
    gear is in transit or not locked in selected position
  46. What drives the emergency generator?
    The blue hydraulic system by a motor
  47. What normally supplies AC ESS bus?
    AS Bus 1
  48. What is the alternate supply for AC ESS bus?
    AC Bus 2 (through the AC ESS feed contactor)
  49. What is the minimum battery voltage at the start of the day?
  50. AVAIL (green) on the EXT PWR switch means what?
    External power is connected and within limits
  51. From the electrical SD, how can you tell that the batteries are being charged?
    By a green arrow pointing at the battery
  52. How long (approx.) does it take to charge the batteries?
    20 minutes
  53. On the MER ELEC PWR panel (OHP) RAT and EM GEN FAULT (red) means what?
    The emergency generator is not supplying power when the AC busses are not powered (1&2)
  54. In EMER CONFIG, what hapens if the airspeed falls below 140 Kts?
    The RAT will stall, the emergency generator will no longer supply electircal power and the system will transfer tot he batteries and static inverter
  55. Which busses are supplied by the EMER GEN?
    The DC ESS & AC ESS, DC Shed bus & AC shed bus
  56. On battery power only (in flight), which busses are supplied and can the APU be started?
    AC ESS bus, AS static inverter, DC ESS bus, hot bus 1 and Hot bus 2. The APU can be started bu is inhibited the first 45 seconds
  57. How long does battery power last (in flight)?
    30 minutes
  58. What happens when the RAT MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pushed?
    The RAT is extended and connects the emergency generator after a 3 seconds delay. The RAT drives the blue hydraulic system
  59. What is the effect of switching OFF the GEN 1 LINE SW?
    It opens the Gen1 contactor, GEN1 supplies 1 fuel pump in each tank
  60. Wat is the priority order for APU/ENG/EXT PWR generators?
    • 1. Engine Generator
    • 2. External generator
    • 3. APU generator
  61. The battery Volts check require which switch(es) to be OFF?
    The battery PB switches
  62. For how long should an IDG disconnect button be pushed?
    Not more than 3 seconds
  63. What does the bus tie switch doe when switched off?
    It opens both bus tie contactors
  64. If the RAT fails to auto-extend, what should you do?
    Switch the man pushbutton on
  65. What illuminates a GALLEY switch FAULT light?
    An Apu generator or engine driven generator's load is greater than 100%
  66. Which systems have fire shut-off valves and what operates these?
    The green and yellow hydraulic system. They are closed by pushing in the ENG (1/2) fire pushbuttons
  67. What causes the yellow electrical hydraulic pump to run/stop automatically? And is the yellow system fully operational when the pump is running?
    • When the lever of the cargo door manual elector valve is set to open or close
    • No, it inhibits the operation of other yellow system functions, except alternate brakes & engine 2 reverse
  68. When does the blue hydraulic pump start automatically?
    After first engine start
  69. When is the PTU inhibited/ de-inhibited?
    From the first engine on untill the second master on
  70. When does the FAULT light (on the OHP) extinguish following a reservoir overheat?
    When the temperature in the reservoir drops
  71. What causes fault lights to illuminate on the OHP?
    Reservoir Low level, Reservoir Overheats, Reservoir Air pressure low, Pump pressure low, Pump overheats
  72. How many automatic cabin pressure controllers are there?
  73. What does the Ditching button do?
    • A close signal is send to:
    • - The outflow valve
    • - Emergency Ram Air Inlet
    • - Avionic ventilation inlet and extract valves
    • - Pack flow control valves
    • If the pressurization mode selector is in MAN the outflow alve needs to be closed manually
  74. What is the Outflow Valve Position with the aircraft on the ground?
    Fully open
  75. During climb, cabin ROC is a function of what
    A fixed pre-programmed law which takes into account the aircrafts actual ROC
  76. When do CPC's (Cabin Pressurization Controllers) automatically change over?
    70 econd after each landing or if the operating system fails
  77. What causes a FAULT light to illuminate in the MODE SEL (airco/press)?
    A fault in both automatic systems (CPC's)
  78. What causes a safety valve to operate?
    A too high (>8.6 PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient) cabin pressure
  79. Following structural failure at high altitude, what are the immediate actions?
    • - Crew Oxygen Masks (above FL100) ON
    • - Turn ALT sel knob & pull
    • - Turn HDG sel knob & pull
    • - Set target spd/ mach
    • - Descent (THR levers IDLE - SPD BRK FULL - Speed max)
    • - Notify ATC
  80. In the 'GROUND' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation? (AiRCO/PRESS)
    The open configuration
  81. In the 'GROUND' mode at low skin air temperatures, wich configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)
    The closed circuit
  82. In the 'FLIGHT' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
    The intermediate configuration
  83. In the 'FLIGHT' mode at low skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
    The close circuit configuration
  84. What cause a BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT light to illuminate?
    • Blowing or extract pressure is low
    • Computer power supply fails
    • Smoke warning activated
  85. Which extra problem causes the BLOWER FAULT light to illuminate
    Duct overheat
  86. What happens when the BLOWER is switched to OVERRIDE?
    • The blower fan stops
    • System in closed circuit configuration
  87. What happens when the BLOWER AND EXTRACT are switched to override
    Air flows from airconditioning system and the overboard. The external fan continues to run
  88. When might you have to put both witches to OVERRIDE?
    When smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation air
  89. What causes the system to transit from the GROUND mode to the FLIGHT mode?
    Take off power or lift off
  90. How many motors can drive the Out Flow Valves?
  91. When is cabin V/S displayed on the doors SD?
    During flight phases 5,6 and 7
  92. What normally supplies the pressurisation system with the landing information
    The FMGS
  93. What is the (approx) max ROD of the cabin in AUTO?
    750 feet/min
  94. What is the Outflow Valve position on the takeoff run?
    A position for a rate of -400 f/min
  95. What happens to the Out Flow Valve after touchdown?
    After 55 seconds it opens with 500 f/min to 0 difference
  96. What is the Out Flow Valve position on the takeoff run?
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A320 flashcards.txt
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