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tswhite
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76687
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Study Guide Chapter 6,7 Pharmacology
Updated:
2011-04-01 23:04:33
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Adrenergic Bronchodilators Anticholinergic
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Description:
Part 1 of 3 for Test of Chapters 6-11
Show Answers:

  1. Adrenergic bronchodilators mimic the actions of:
    A. Penicillin
    B. Acetylcholine
    C. norepinephrine
    D. Epinephrine
    D. Epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Relaxation of smooth airway muscle in the presence of reversible airflow obstruction is a general indication for the use of:
    A. antiinfective agents
    B. adrenergic bronchodilators
    C. mucolytics
    D. steroids
    B. adrenergic bronchodilators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Disease states that could benefit from the use of adrenergic bronchodilators include which of the following?
    I. asthma
    II. bronchitis
    III. emphysema
    IV. bronchiectasis
    V. pleural effusion

    A. I, II, II, and IV only
    B. II, IV, and V only
    C. I and III only
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    A. I, II, II, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Short-acting B2 agonists are indicated for:
    A. maintenance of bronchodilation
    B. relief of acute reversible airflow obstruction
    C. reduction of airway edema
    D. thinning of secretions
    B. relief of acute reversible airflow obstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Your patient is diagnosed with persistent asthma. Which type of drug would you recommend for maintenance bronchodilation and control of bronchospasm?
    A. alpha-adrenergic agent
    B. long-acting adrenergic agent
    C. short-acting adrenergic agent
    D. mucolytic agent
    B. long-acting adrenergic agent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Your patient presents with postextubation stridor. You recommend racemic epinephrine for its:
    A. long-acting B2-adrenergic effect
    B. short-acting B2-adrenergic effect
    C. alpha-adrenergic vasoconstricting effect
    D. B1-adrenergic effect
    C. alpha-adrenergic vasoconstricting effect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. You enter the room of a 2-year-old patient who presents with the characteristic "barking cough" found with croup. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, you may recommend which of the following medications to help provide relief from subglottic swelling?
    A. racemic epinephrine
    B. terbutaline
    C. albuterol
    D. salmeterol
    A. racemic epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. In a patient who is receiving large doses of catecholamines, you may expect to see all of the following side effects except:
    A. diuresis
    B. relaxation of brochial smooth muscle
    C. incr blood pressure
    D. tachycardia
    A. diuresis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Levalbuterol is:
    A. an equal mixture of (R)- and (S)-isomers
    B. the single (R)-isomer of albuterol
    C. the same as albuterol.
    D. the same as racemic epinephrine
    B. the single (R)-isomer of albuterol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Ephinephrine stimulates which sites?
    I. Alpha
    II. B1
    III. B2
    IV. Cholinergic

    A. I, II, and III only
    B. IV only
    C. II only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    A. I, II, and III only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Epinephrine would be indicated for all of the following except:
    A. acute asthma episodes
    B. systemic hypersensitivity reactions
    C. treatment of infections
    D. cardiac stimulation
    C. treatment of infections
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Racemic epinephrine comes in what percent solution?
    A. 2.25%
    B. 1.25%
    C. 0.05%
    D. 5.0%
    A. 2.25%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The keyhole theory indicates that the larger the side-chain attachment to a catechol base, the:
    A. more easily it is broken down by COMT
    B. more easily it is metabolized
    C. shorter the duration of action
    D. greater B2 specificity
    D. greater B2 specificity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Catecholamines are inactivated by:
    A. ephinephrine
    B. COMT
    C. ACTH
    D. ATP
    B. COMT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Catecholamines should not be given by which of the following routes:
    A. oral
    B. subcutaneous
    C. inhalation
    D. injection
    A. oral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Albuterol is available in which of the following forms?
    I. syrup
    II. nebulizer solution
    III. MDI
    IV. oral tablets
    V. DPI

    A. III, IV, and V only
    B. I, II, and V only
    C. II and III only
    D. I, II, III, IV and V
    D. I, II, III, IV and V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Salmeterol is:
    A. available in nebulizer solution only
    B. another name for albuterol
    C. a long-acting B-adrenergic
    c. indicated for acute asthma attacks
    C. a long-acting B-adrenergic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Long-acting B2 agonists are indicated for:
    A. treating infections
    B. mucus reduction
    C. acute asthma attacks
    D. maintenance therapy for asthmatics
    D. maintenance therapy for asthmatics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The bronchodilating action of adrenergic drugs is due to stimulation of:
    A. B1 receptors
    B. cholinergic receptors
    C. alpha receptors
    D. B2 receptors
    D. B2 receptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. B1 receptor stimulation will:
    A. incr heart rate and contractile force
    B. provide upper airway decongestion
    C. cause vasoconstriction
    D. relax bronchiole smooth muscles
    A. incr heart rate and contractile force
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Smooth muscle relaxation most likely occurs as a result of:
    A. an incr in ATP
    B. an incr in intracellular cAMP
    C. a decr in intracellular cAMP
    D. a decr in ATP
    B. an incr in intracellular cAMP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Inhalation is the preferred route of administering catecholamines for which of the following reasons?
    I. rapid onset of action
    II. smaller dosage used
    III. reduced side effects
    IV. drug is delivered to target organ
    V. safe and painless route

    A. I, III, and V only
    B. III and IV only
    C. I and II only
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Continuous nebulization of inhaled B agonists has been used for:
    A. cystic fibrosis
    B. pneumonia
    C. severe asthma
    D. emphysema
    C. severe asthma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The dosage recommended by NAEPP EPR 2 for continuous nebulization of adrenergic agents is:
    A. 10-15 mg/hr
    B. 8 to 12 mg/hr
    C. 5 to 8 mg/hr
    D. 20-30 mg/hr
    A. 10-15 mg/hr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Your patient is receiving her third continuous nebulizer of albuterol (15 mg/hr). Which potential complications should you be on the look out for?
    I. hypokalemia
    II. cardiac arrhythmias
    III. hyperglycemia
    IV. PVCs
    V. tremor

    A. I, II, IV, and V only
    B. I, II, and V only
    C. II and IV only
    D. I, II, III, IV, and IV
    D. I, II, III, IV, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. All of the following are side effects that should be monitored in you patient when using sympathomimetic aerosol except:
    A. bracycardia
    B. muscle tremor
    C. insomnia
    D. tachycardia
    A. bracycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. You are ordered to extubate a mechanically ventilated patient who has recently undergone open heart surgery. On postextubation assessment you note that the patient has stridor with mild retractions. Pharmacologically, you would recommend:
    A. anticholinergic
    B. alpha adrenergic
    C. B2 adrenergic
    D. sympatholytic
    B. alpha adrenergic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which is the only B-agonist formulation that is a single isomer and is approved by the FDA for aerosol deliver?
    A. levalbuterol
    B. albuterol
    C. epinephrine
    D. tiotropium
    A. levalbuterol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What is the rationale for using the single-isomer agent levalbuterol instead of racemic albuterol?
    A. The (R)-isomer is thought to cause tachycardia
    B. the (S)-isomer is a weak bronchodilator
    C. the (S)-isomer is thought to promote bronchoconstriction
    D. The (R)-isomer is thought to cause tremors
    C. the (S)-isomer is thought to promote bronchoconstriction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. What is the main difference between salmeterol and formoterol?
    A. formoterol is more B2 specific than salmeterol
    B. formoterol has slower onset and peak effect compared with salmeterol
    C. formoterol is a short-acting; salmeterol is long-acting
    D. formoterol has a quicker onset and peak effect than salmeterol
    D. formoterol has a quicker onset and peak effect than salmeterol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. What is the indication for use of a short-acing B agonist in asthma?
    A. intiinflammatory agent in reversible airlow obstruction
    B. rescue therapy in reversible airflow obstruction
    C. maintenance therapy in reversible airflow obstruction
    D. intiinfective agent in respiratory infections
    B. rescue therapy in reversible airflow obstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Is it appropriate to use formoterol as a rescue B-agonist bronchodilator?
    a. yes
    b. no
    • b. no
    • (because its a controller - up to 12 hours)
  33. Which procedure would tell you that a patient has reversible airway obstruction?
    A. pulse oximetry
    B. pre- and postpulmonary function tests
    C. inspection: patient SOB when walking < 25 ft
    D. wheezing on auscultation
    B. pre- and postpulmonary function tests
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. You receive an order to administer 5 ml of albuterol by SVN. You would:
    A. call the physician to confirm the medication dose
    B. have your supervisor administer the treatment
    C. confirm the order on the char and administer as directed
    D. give 0.5 ml of medication because that is probably what the doctor meant to write
    A. call the physician to confirm the medication dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. You are administering an aerosolized bronchodilator to your patient. Her pretreatment pulse was 85 bpm. You would stop the treatment if her pulse reached:
    A. 110
    B. 100
    C. 90
    D. 120
    A. 110
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A 7-yr-old boy has been given multiple aerosolized albuterol treatments over the last several days. You enter the room and his father tells you that every time a therapist administers a treatment, a few minutes later the saturation falls. You explain to the father:
    A. that this is normal because of incr perfusion to poorly ventilated areas
    B. that this is abnormal and you will try to changle the med to levalbuterol
    C. that this is abnormal and call the physician
    c. that this is normal because you are giving the treatment with air
    A. that this is normal because of incr perfusion to poorly ventilated areas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A patient with glottic edema is in mild distress. Which of the following medications would be of benefit in this situation?
    A. racemic epinephrine
    B. ipratropium bromide
    C. albuterol
    D. theophylline
    A. racemic epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The only anticholinergic that is approved by the FDA for aerosolization is:
    A. glycopyrrolate
    B. albuterol sulfate
    C. ipratropium bromide
    D. atropine
    C. ipratropium bromide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Ipratropium bromide can be delivered by which of the following methods?
    I. tablet
    II. nebulizer
    III. injection
    IV. MDI
    V. nasal spray

    A. I, II, and IV only
    B. I, III, and IV only
    C. II only
    D. II, IV, and V only
    D. II, IV, and V only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Atrovent is approved for:
    A. acute bronchoconstriction
    B. thinning of dried secretions
    C. exacerbation of COPD
    D. maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in COPD
    D. maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in COPD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Combivent is a combination drug including which agents?
    A. albuterol and atrovent
    B. serevent and atrovent
    C. albuterol and serevent
    D. maxair and atrovent
    A. albuterol and atrovent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Cholinergic stimulation will produce which of the following effects?
    I. bronchoconstrictionn
    II. incr mucus secretion
    III. miosis
    IV. decr heart rate
    V. salivation

    A. II, III, and IV only
    B. I, III, and V only
    C. IV only
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Mucociliary slowing, bronchodilation, and increased heart rate are all a result of:
    A. anticholinergic agents
    B. adrenergic agents
    C. cholinergic agents
    D. parasympathetic agents
    A. anticholinergic agents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Quaternary ammonium compounds such as ipratropium:
    A. are distributed quickly throught the body when inhaled
    B. do not cross lipid membranes easily
    C. are not effective as inhaled agents
    D. have no role in respiratory care
    B. do not cross lipid membranes easily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Ipratropium agents may be indicated to treat:
    a. allergic rhinitis
    b. common cold
    c. nonallergic rhinitis
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  46. Quaternary ammonium compounds cause bronchodilation by:
    A. blocking adrenergic sites
    B. stimulating cholinergic sites
    C. blocking cholinergic sites
    D. stimulating adrenergic sites
    C. blocking cholinergic sites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Patients using ipratropium aerosols should be instructed to avoid allowing the aerosol in contact with their:
    A. eye
    B. nose
    C. hair
    D. ear
    A. eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Activating an atroven inhaler in the eye may cause:
    A. pupil constriction
    B. pupil dilation
    C. blindness
    D. scarring of the cornea
    B. pupil dilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Cardiac effects of aerosolized apratropium bromide include:
    A. incr heart muscle contractility
    B. incr blood pressure
    C. incr heart rate
    D. little or no effect
    D. little or no effect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Drugs that competitively block the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic postganglionic effector cell receptors are called:
    A. antimuscarinic agents
    B. adrenergic agents
    C. musarinic agents
    D. cholinergic agents
    A. antimuscarinic agents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The most common side effect of anticholinergic bronchodilators is:
    A. wheezing
    B. incr heart rate
    C. dry mouth
    D. delirium
    C. dry mouth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Possible side effects of aerosolized atrovent include which of the following?
    I. flulike symptoms
    II. pharyngitits
    III. cardiac arrest
    IV. dry mouth
    V. dyspnea

    A. I, II, IV, and V only
    B. I, II, and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I, II, III, IV, and V
    A. I, II, IV, and V only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Results of your patient's PFT show that the peak flow rate increased the most when she inhaled an aerosolized sympathomimetic agent and an aerosolized parasympatholytic agent. You would recommend that she be given:
    A. combivent MDI
    B. serevent DPI
    C. ventolin MDI
    D. foradil DPI
    A. combivent MDI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. What is the only once-a-day anticholinergic on the market?
    A. glycopyrrolate
    B. ipratropium bromide
    C. atropine
    D. tiotropium bromide
    D. tiotropium bromide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. All of the following are true about piratropium, except:
    A. It is added to B-agonist in severe asthma episodes that do not respond to B-agonists alone.
    B. It can be combined with a B-agonist for maintenance bronchodilation in COPD.
    C. It is a first-line choice of bronchodilator for COPD.
    D. It is a leukotriene modifier used to treat step 3 asthma.
    D. It is a leukotriene modifier used to treat step 3 asthma.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)